WEBVTT

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[SQUEAKING]

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[RUSTLING]

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[CLICKING]

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ROBERT TOWNSEND: As usual,
let's find out where we are.

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We did the first two sections
of general equilibrium

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on welfare and existence.

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And now, we're going to do
Gorman aggregation today,

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and then finish this
segment with identification.

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We have two lectures to
finish out the class.

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So that's where we are.

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In terms of the
reading list for today,

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there's only one
thing there, and it's

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the place from where I
drew a lot of the material

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for the welfare theorem
for the Gorman aggregation

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and my colleague Daron.

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It is starred, but
it is also pretty

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extensively covered
today as well.

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Then we have the study guide.

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So last time, we did
concepts of existence

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in various distinct ways.

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There aren't too many
review questions here.

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I didn't ask the
first set of them.

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But we get down to Negishi.

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So how does Negishi use the
first and second welfare

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theorems to generate a mapping
in lambda weights, the fixed

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point of which is a
competitive equilibrium?

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And since I was calling
on everyone last time,

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let me just take volunteers.

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Hopefully, there are volunteers.

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AUDIENCE: I was--

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ROBERT TOWNSEND: Go on.

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AUDIENCE: You go ahead.

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AUDIENCE: I was
about to say that I

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was a little unclear
on the proof overall,

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but I remember that we use
the fact that for any lambda,

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the corresponding period
of optimal allocation

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would be in equilibrium
with transfers

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by the second welfare theorem,
and we use that to prove

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Negishi's theorem.

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ROBERT TOWNSEND:
Yeah, that's right.

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We used to have the
second one heavily.

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The first one is that any
competitive equilibrium

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is Pareto optimal, and hence,
it corresponds to some lambda

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weights in the Pareto problem.

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So Negishi's mapping
is to find a way

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to find the particular
special lambdas

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of the competitive equilibrium
with private ownership that is

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the fixed point of his mapping.

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I realized after
class, in part talking

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with one of you who came to
office hours, that I never--

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I think I neglected
to say the obvious.

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What I did say is to
find the lambda such

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that the valuation
of expenditures

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under the Pareto of optimum
uses using the second welfare

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theorem is equal to the
valuation of the endowment

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plus shares on profits
that corresponds

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to the competitive equilibrium.

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But what I think I
neglected to say was--

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maybe I did say it.

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Bears repeating.

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That if you initially
guess a lambda which

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is high than the value for
a particular household, then

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the valuation of that
household's expenditures

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will be large relative to
the valuation of wealth

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in the private
ownership economy.

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So sort of intuitively, then,
you lower that lambda weight.

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That links up to something
we learned when we did this

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the second welfare
theorem, which

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is, those lambdas are
inversely proportional to

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the marginal utility of wealth.

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So if the lambda is too
high, the guy has too much--

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the evaluation of
expenditures is too high.

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So the marginal utility of
wealth with concave utility

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is low.

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So you want to move in the
direction of increasing

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the marginal utility of wealth,
which effectively removes

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wealth by lowering lambda.

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So anyway, thank you.

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Next question.

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Define a mixed-strategy
Nash equilibrium.

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AUDIENCE: I think
I can do this one.

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Like, a mixed-strategy
Nash equilibrium is--

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it's a type of Nash
equilibrium where at least some

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of the players are--

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choose some of the
options that are random?

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So there's some
weighted probabilities

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where you can have some chance
of doing option A, some chance

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of doing option B, and so on.

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And in order for it to work, the
player who is doing mixed stuff

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has to be indifferent
from all of the things

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with non-zero between all
of the different options

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with non-zero probabilities, and
it also has to be in such a way

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that, again, no one
has any incentive

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to deviate from the strategy.

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ROBERT TOWNSEND: Right.

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The last thing,
especially, is key.

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So the mixed-strategy Nash
equilibrium is taking--

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each player takes as given
a configuration of mixed

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strategies of the others--

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sort of star strategy,
so to speak-- and then

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feels free to choose the
best one for his or herself.

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But that will end up
being exactly the star

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strategy to begin with.

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So it's, like, self-fulfilling
in the space of strategies.

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Thank you.

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That was a good answer.

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And then the last one.

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How do we give an
incentive for traders

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to live up to their
promises and achieve

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over raising an equilibrium?

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So I did this in the context
of the market for trades

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in US treasuries in New York.

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Which is a trade agreed to
by treasury for liquidity.

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I mentioned that, in
fact, there were trade

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fails where they don't
live up to their agreement

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because the party selling
the treasury doesn't own it,

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can't transfer it at the
time, when a settlement is due

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or the person who
promised to pay liquidity

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doesn't have
sufficient liquidity.

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And then I mapped that into
the Walrasian equilibrium

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framework.

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So let me ask it again.

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How do we give an
incentive for trades--

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trade-- for traders,
I guess it should be,

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to live up to their promise
and achieve a Walrasian

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equilibrium?

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Anybody remember?

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AUDIENCE: I remember there was
a penalty for liquidity, right?

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If the creditor was negative,
then it will have this utility.

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And so you're in--

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so in the end, in order to
achieve the [? variation ?]

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allocation, we need to
let all of the downwards--

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or there was a--

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we need to let the
[? operator ?] equal to 0

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so that there was no
exercise demand, no--

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yeah.

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I mean--

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ROBERT TOWNSEND: Yeah.

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Yeah, that's good.

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AUDIENCE: We should
we want to promise

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that if the endowment is equal
to the allocations, the extent

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of the allocation.

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ROBERT TOWNSEND: Right.

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That's good.

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So the problem is,
they're submitting bids,

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and we're looking for
a Nash equilibrium.

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The bids consist of orders to
buy and also orders to sell.

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We're shooting for the
Walrasian equilibrium,

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in particular, the
budget constraints.

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So we want, for each
trader, that the valuation

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of what they're
buying is at least

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matched by the valuation
of what they're selling.

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In other words, they have
sufficient liquidity.

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And if we didn't put in a
penalty, everybody would

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overspend, because why not?

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So yeah, so then the
penalty that you mentioned--

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so beta is negative.

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When beta is
negative, that means

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they're spending more
than they have in revenue.

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That's a bad thing.

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So we effectively make
the penalty beta--

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sorry, I can't
remember the notation.

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I think it was
lambda times beta--

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sufficiently high so then
they do the right trade-off.

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They look at how much they
would get in utility from buying

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this stuff directly and weigh
that against the disutility

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of the penalty.

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The magnitude of the penalty had
to do with the marginal utility

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of income, that
Lagrange multiplier

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we keep focusing on in the
competitive equilibrium

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and the budget constraint.

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So the margin utility of income
represents the incremental gain

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from having epsilon
more liquidity.

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And they're tempted
to spend more

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than they have to go in
that epsilon direction,

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but the penalty is large enough
so as to dominate that gain,

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and they don't deviate.

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Well, in earmarking
this question,

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I recognized that we
rushed a bit at the end.

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In fact, I went over the class
time by a couple of minutes.

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So anyway, hopefully,
that was a useful review.

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Any other questions
from last time?

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OK.

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So now, I want to
get to aggregation.

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This is kind of an exciting
lecture in the sense

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that it goes back and
reviews some of the things

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we've been doing before--

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certainly, the basics
of consumer theory

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with utility maximization,
some things about Lagrangians

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and envelope theorems.

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It also goes back to
the first application

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we have had of consumers
maximizing utility

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subject to budgets,
and what happens

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when income changes, and so on.

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So we already talked about
angles, curves, and Giffen

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goods, and so on.

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And so you have the
micro background already.

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So you can judge
the plausibility

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of the assumptions we're
about to make in order

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to allow the aggregation.

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And the aggregation was used
when we did, like, free trade.

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We would talk about a
representative consumer, not

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just Robinson Crusoe,
one man on the island,

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but someone representing
the entire US population.

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So that is a big leap of faith.

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Today, we'll spell out
what it takes to do that.

00:11:44.600 --> 00:11:47.020 align:middle line:84%
So this is going to
be Gorman aggregation,

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and we're going to do it in the
positive sense of predicting

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what will happen and in the
normative sense of making

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statements about
consumer welfare.

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And then we're going to
have indirect utility

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functions, Gorman Polar
forms, and the rest I already

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mentioned.

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So some micro, but
mostly macro economists,

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assume the
representative consumer

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or representative agents.

00:12:10.360 --> 00:12:13.540 align:middle line:84%
It kind of comes
naturally, because they're

00:12:13.540 --> 00:12:19.520 align:middle line:84%
worrying about aggregates,
not distributional aspects.

00:12:19.520 --> 00:12:24.460 align:middle line:84%
So that gives them and us a
tractable way of understanding

00:12:24.460 --> 00:12:25.690 align:middle line:90%
market demand--

00:12:25.690 --> 00:12:27.490 align:middle line:90%
and supply, for that matter--

00:12:27.490 --> 00:12:30.880 align:middle line:84%
and allows pretty
easy welfare analysis

00:12:30.880 --> 00:12:32.450 align:middle line:90%
because there's only one person.

00:12:32.450 --> 00:12:35.140 align:middle line:84%
So those are all the
advantages, but we'll

00:12:35.140 --> 00:12:37.150 align:middle line:90%
see how realistic it is.

00:12:37.150 --> 00:12:41.470 align:middle line:84%
So here's the utility
maximization problem.

00:12:41.470 --> 00:12:46.750 align:middle line:84%
Maximizing-- we'll suppress the
labels here for households i

00:12:46.750 --> 00:12:47.930 align:middle line:90%
and h and so on.

00:12:47.930 --> 00:12:53.000 align:middle line:84%
So this household has a utility
function represented by u of x,

00:12:53.000 --> 00:12:56.350 align:middle line:84%
where x is in the consumption
set and the valuation

00:12:56.350 --> 00:13:00.610 align:middle line:84%
of expenditures at prices
p cannot exceed wealth w.

00:13:00.610 --> 00:13:04.570 align:middle line:84%
So we call the solution to this
problem, after maxing it out--

00:13:04.570 --> 00:13:09.170 align:middle line:84%
the achieved maximized
utility is called the value.

00:13:09.170 --> 00:13:13.390 align:middle line:84%
And this function v is called
the indirect utility function,

00:13:13.390 --> 00:13:14.780 align:middle line:90%
v for value.

00:13:14.780 --> 00:13:17.830 align:middle line:84%
So it takes as
given the parameters

00:13:17.830 --> 00:13:20.110 align:middle line:84%
that the household
takes as given,

00:13:20.110 --> 00:13:23.920 align:middle line:84%
namely, the price
vector p and wealth w.

00:13:23.920 --> 00:13:26.680 align:middle line:84%
So it is the maximal
attainable utility

00:13:26.680 --> 00:13:30.640 align:middle line:84%
in the budget set as a
function of those parameters.

00:13:30.640 --> 00:13:35.140 align:middle line:84%
And the bottom line here-- you
can just see, if x of p and w

00:13:35.140 --> 00:13:37.780 align:middle line:84%
is the maximizer, we
just stick it back

00:13:37.780 --> 00:13:39.520 align:middle line:84%
into the utility
function, and that

00:13:39.520 --> 00:13:41.215 align:middle line:90%
would be the optimized value.

00:13:41.215 --> 00:13:44.310 align:middle line:90%


00:13:44.310 --> 00:13:47.430 align:middle line:84%
So there are very
useful properties

00:13:47.430 --> 00:13:50.820 align:middle line:84%
of this indirect
utility function,

00:13:50.820 --> 00:13:53.740 align:middle line:84%
and they are reviewed
on this slide.

00:13:53.740 --> 00:13:56.460 align:middle line:84%
Let's assume the
consumption set is

00:13:56.460 --> 00:14:00.780 align:middle line:84%
a subset of finite dimensional,
L-dimensional Euclidean space.

00:14:00.780 --> 00:14:03.180 align:middle line:84%
Utility functions
are continuous,

00:14:03.180 --> 00:14:05.220 align:middle line:84%
representing a
preference relation that

00:14:05.220 --> 00:14:07.680 align:middle line:90%
is rational and continuous.

00:14:07.680 --> 00:14:10.860 align:middle line:84%
The indirect utility
just defined.

00:14:10.860 --> 00:14:14.610 align:middle line:84%
First of all, this v as
a function of p and w

00:14:14.610 --> 00:14:18.780 align:middle line:84%
is homogeneous of
degree 0 in p and w,

00:14:18.780 --> 00:14:22.950 align:middle line:84%
because as you already know, if
you, for example, double prices

00:14:22.950 --> 00:14:26.340 align:middle line:84%
and wealth, it doesn't change
the picture of consumer

00:14:26.340 --> 00:14:30.030 align:middle line:84%
maximization and you
get the same solution.

00:14:30.030 --> 00:14:32.100 align:middle line:84%
It's like, there's no
money illusion here.

00:14:32.100 --> 00:14:35.580 align:middle line:84%
If price is double, but
wealth loss also doubles,

00:14:35.580 --> 00:14:39.540 align:middle line:84%
you're just as well off as you
were before, and not worse off.

00:14:39.540 --> 00:14:43.500 align:middle line:84%
This indirect utility function
has intuitive derivatives

00:14:43.500 --> 00:14:45.660 align:middle line:90%
with respect to p and w.

00:14:45.660 --> 00:14:48.930 align:middle line:84%
Increasing p makes you worse
off, or at least not better

00:14:48.930 --> 00:14:50.280 align:middle line:90%
off.

00:14:50.280 --> 00:14:53.610 align:middle line:84%
Increasing w makes
you better off.

00:14:53.610 --> 00:14:54.840 align:middle line:90%
w is wealth.

00:14:54.840 --> 00:14:57.040 align:middle line:90%
Prices are what you have to pay.

00:14:57.040 --> 00:15:00.180 align:middle line:84%
In fact, that indirect utility
will be strictly increasing

00:15:00.180 --> 00:15:03.690 align:middle line:84%
in w when we have local
non-satiation, which

00:15:03.690 --> 00:15:06.600 align:middle line:84%
is what we're always
going to be assuming here.

00:15:06.600 --> 00:15:13.380 align:middle line:84%
The indirect utility function
is quasi-convex, not concave--

00:15:13.380 --> 00:15:15.900 align:middle line:90%
convex in p and w.

00:15:15.900 --> 00:15:19.770 align:middle line:84%
So again, when we did consumer
theory, we had concave utility.

00:15:19.770 --> 00:15:22.350 align:middle line:84%
Upper contour sets
where quasi-convex,

00:15:22.350 --> 00:15:24.870 align:middle line:84%
but the utility
function was concave.

00:15:24.870 --> 00:15:27.720 align:middle line:84%
This maximized utility
over the budget

00:15:27.720 --> 00:15:31.440 align:middle line:84%
is convex, or at
least quasi-convex.

00:15:31.440 --> 00:15:36.750 align:middle line:84%
Continuous, which is easy to
assume, and differentiable.

00:15:36.750 --> 00:15:41.310 align:middle line:84%
And when the indirect utility
function is differentiable,

00:15:41.310 --> 00:15:44.610 align:middle line:90%
we can use it to recover demand.

00:15:44.610 --> 00:15:46.620 align:middle line:84%
And the proof is
pretty easy, but here,

00:15:46.620 --> 00:15:49.180 align:middle line:84%
it looks kind of
amazing, I suppose,

00:15:49.180 --> 00:15:53.460 align:middle line:84%
which is if we want the
maximized quantity of good L

00:15:53.460 --> 00:15:59.100 align:middle line:84%
for this consumer facing
price vector p and wealth w,

00:15:59.100 --> 00:16:01.470 align:middle line:84%
the answer will be
take the derivative

00:16:01.470 --> 00:16:06.720 align:middle line:84%
of the indirect utility function
with respect to the L-th price,

00:16:06.720 --> 00:16:10.200 align:middle line:84%
and divide by the derivative
of the indirect utility

00:16:10.200 --> 00:16:13.620 align:middle line:84%
function with respect to wealth,
and stick a negative sign

00:16:13.620 --> 00:16:16.380 align:middle line:90%
in front of all of that.

00:16:16.380 --> 00:16:18.570 align:middle line:90%
So here's a little proof of it.

00:16:18.570 --> 00:16:21.810 align:middle line:84%
We have the Lagrangian,
which represents a utility

00:16:21.810 --> 00:16:27.140 align:middle line:84%
maximization problem,
with 0 being the shadow

00:16:27.140 --> 00:16:30.020 align:middle line:90%
price of the budget and the L--

00:16:30.020 --> 00:16:33.200 align:middle line:84%
sorry, are lambda sub
0, and lambda sub L

00:16:33.200 --> 00:16:38.660 align:middle line:84%
being potential shadow prices
on non-negativity constraints.

00:16:38.660 --> 00:16:41.620 align:middle line:84%
So we're going to use the
envelope theorem, which

00:16:41.620 --> 00:16:44.800 align:middle line:84%
to remind you,
states that you can

00:16:44.800 --> 00:16:47.860 align:middle line:84%
take a derivative with
respect to the parameters

00:16:47.860 --> 00:16:51.820 align:middle line:84%
of the optimization problem,
in this case, p and w.

00:16:51.820 --> 00:16:56.290 align:middle line:84%
And if you take the derivatives
at the optimizing solution

00:16:56.290 --> 00:17:00.850 align:middle line:84%
to get sort of the increment
in utility associated

00:17:00.850 --> 00:17:03.170 align:middle line:90%
with changing those parameters.

00:17:03.170 --> 00:17:07.510 align:middle line:84%
So the increment in utility
from solving the max problem

00:17:07.510 --> 00:17:12.119 align:middle line:84%
at those parameters is also the
derivative of the Lagrangian

00:17:12.119 --> 00:17:13.960 align:middle line:84%
with respect to
those parameters.

00:17:13.960 --> 00:17:15.670 align:middle line:84%
So there's, like,
two steps there--

00:17:15.670 --> 00:17:18.609 align:middle line:84%
how to represent the
maximum value, namely,

00:17:18.609 --> 00:17:23.380 align:middle line:84%
as a solution to the Lagrangian,
and also the envelope theorem

00:17:23.380 --> 00:17:24.430 align:middle line:90%
that tells you--

00:17:24.430 --> 00:17:28.420 align:middle line:84%
reminds you that the derivative
of the optimized solution

00:17:28.420 --> 00:17:32.260 align:middle line:84%
with respect to the parameter
is, like, differentiating

00:17:32.260 --> 00:17:35.240 align:middle line:90%
at the maximizing quantities.

00:17:35.240 --> 00:17:36.770 align:middle line:90%
So too many words.

00:17:36.770 --> 00:17:40.630 align:middle line:84%
So the first derivative here
in equation 3, the derivative

00:17:40.630 --> 00:17:43.120 align:middle line:84%
of the value function with
respect to a particular price

00:17:43.120 --> 00:17:45.640 align:middle line:84%
pl is the derivative of
the Lagrangian with respect

00:17:45.640 --> 00:17:50.200 align:middle line:84%
to-- at price pl evaluated
at the maximum, namely,

00:17:50.200 --> 00:17:53.020 align:middle line:90%
x sub p and w is the demand.

00:17:53.020 --> 00:17:55.300 align:middle line:84%
And going back upstairs
here, derivative

00:17:55.300 --> 00:17:58.162 align:middle line:84%
of the Lagrangian with respect
to pl, where does it appear?

00:17:58.162 --> 00:17:59.620 align:middle line:84%
It only appears
here in the budget.

00:17:59.620 --> 00:18:03.850 align:middle line:84%
So you get a lambda 0,
and p is linear in x.

00:18:03.850 --> 00:18:08.020 align:middle line:84%
So you get the x sub l back,
and that's this object.

00:18:08.020 --> 00:18:10.450 align:middle line:84%
Likewise, the derivative
with the indirect utility

00:18:10.450 --> 00:18:13.090 align:middle line:84%
with respect to w, derivative
of the Lagrangian with respect

00:18:13.090 --> 00:18:17.380 align:middle line:84%
to w wealth, evaluated at
the maximizing solution.

00:18:17.380 --> 00:18:19.210 align:middle line:84%
There's only one
place that w appears.

00:18:19.210 --> 00:18:20.150 align:middle line:90%
It's up here.

00:18:20.150 --> 00:18:22.210 align:middle line:90%
So you just get lambda 0.

00:18:22.210 --> 00:18:25.720 align:middle line:84%
So lambda 0 is
now in 4 and in 3.

00:18:25.720 --> 00:18:29.290 align:middle line:84%
Substitute the
expression in 4 into 3,

00:18:29.290 --> 00:18:33.340 align:middle line:90%
and you get dv dp l equal to--

00:18:33.340 --> 00:18:35.290 align:middle line:90%
well, it's all written out here.

00:18:35.290 --> 00:18:37.840 align:middle line:84%
Just basically
taking the lambda 0,

00:18:37.840 --> 00:18:41.140 align:middle line:84%
looking at the left-hand
side, sticking it in here,

00:18:41.140 --> 00:18:43.270 align:middle line:90%
and then repeating the x sub l.

00:18:43.270 --> 00:18:46.210 align:middle line:84%
So now, solve this
equation for x sub l

00:18:46.210 --> 00:18:49.000 align:middle line:84%
and you get what
we wanted, namely,

00:18:49.000 --> 00:18:51.520 align:middle line:84%
the ratio of the derivative
with respect to p

00:18:51.520 --> 00:18:54.230 align:middle line:84%
divided by-- with respect
to w with the minus

00:18:54.230 --> 00:18:55.330 align:middle line:90%
sign in front of it.

00:18:55.330 --> 00:18:57.560 align:middle line:90%
So we get what we wanted.

00:18:57.560 --> 00:18:58.420 align:middle line:90%
Questions?

00:18:58.420 --> 00:19:01.200 align:middle line:90%


00:19:01.200 --> 00:19:04.970 align:middle line:84%
So that's an interesting problem
of the indirect utilities.

00:19:04.970 --> 00:19:09.620 align:middle line:84%
Now, we're ready to define
a particular version

00:19:09.620 --> 00:19:13.460 align:middle line:84%
of the indirect utility function
called Gorman Polar form,

00:19:13.460 --> 00:19:15.590 align:middle line:90%
or Gorman form.

00:19:15.590 --> 00:19:19.220 align:middle line:84%
This doesn't always
happen, but it can happen.

00:19:19.220 --> 00:19:20.930 align:middle line:84%
For particular
utility functions,

00:19:20.930 --> 00:19:24.290 align:middle line:84%
the indirect utility
function in p and w

00:19:24.290 --> 00:19:26.810 align:middle line:84%
has an intercept
and a slope and.

00:19:26.810 --> 00:19:30.110 align:middle line:84%
The intercept is a
function of vector p.

00:19:30.110 --> 00:19:34.700 align:middle line:84%
The slope b with respect to
w is a function of vector p,

00:19:34.700 --> 00:19:36.350 align:middle line:90%
and it's linear in w.

00:19:36.350 --> 00:19:38.270 align:middle line:84%
And I'll show you an
example right now,

00:19:38.270 --> 00:19:40.250 align:middle line:84%
because this seems
a bit mysterious.

00:19:40.250 --> 00:19:43.340 align:middle line:84%
So let's go back to our
favorite utility function,

00:19:43.340 --> 00:19:45.740 align:middle line:84%
this sort of Cobb
Douglass, with two goods,

00:19:45.740 --> 00:19:49.400 align:middle line:84%
x1 and x2, raised to the
power alpha and 1 minus alpha.

00:19:49.400 --> 00:19:53.000 align:middle line:84%
You may remember that
these alphas and 1 minus

00:19:53.000 --> 00:19:55.700 align:middle line:84%
alpha represent the
expenditure share

00:19:55.700 --> 00:19:58.670 align:middle line:90%
in the optimized solution.

00:19:58.670 --> 00:20:02.240 align:middle line:90%
So p1 times x1 is alpha times w.

00:20:02.240 --> 00:20:06.350 align:middle line:84%
So this household spends alpha
fraction of its wealth, w,

00:20:06.350 --> 00:20:12.290 align:middle line:84%
on good 1, and spends 1 minus
alpha times w on good 2.

00:20:12.290 --> 00:20:15.330 align:middle line:84%
I'm just shifting these prices
over here to the left-hand side

00:20:15.330 --> 00:20:16.460 align:middle line:90%
so it's not just quantity.

00:20:16.460 --> 00:20:19.500 align:middle line:84%
It's quantity times
price or value.

00:20:19.500 --> 00:20:23.120 align:middle line:84%
So with each Cobb Douglas, it's
constant expenditure shares.

00:20:23.120 --> 00:20:25.410 align:middle line:90%
More on that momentarily.

00:20:25.410 --> 00:20:28.160 align:middle line:84%
And now, the definition
of indirect utility

00:20:28.160 --> 00:20:32.190 align:middle line:84%
says, just substitute
in the maximized value.

00:20:32.190 --> 00:20:37.370 align:middle line:84%
So we take Ux1, but use
this expression for x1

00:20:37.370 --> 00:20:39.950 align:middle line:84%
to the alpha x to
this expression for x2

00:20:39.950 --> 00:20:41.450 align:middle line:90%
to the 1 minus alpha.

00:20:41.450 --> 00:20:42.770 align:middle line:90%
That's this business.

00:20:42.770 --> 00:20:46.970 align:middle line:84%
And when you solve it
out, you get of a of p,

00:20:46.970 --> 00:20:50.390 align:middle line:84%
looking for it to
be in this form.

00:20:50.390 --> 00:20:54.200 align:middle line:84%
a of p is 0, and b of p is
this coefficient, [INAUDIBLE]

00:20:54.200 --> 00:20:58.400 align:middle line:84%
alpha 1 minus alpha p1 and
p2 to these powers alpha

00:20:58.400 --> 00:20:59.900 align:middle line:90%
and 1 minus alpha.

00:20:59.900 --> 00:21:01.130 align:middle line:90%
That's b of p.

00:21:01.130 --> 00:21:03.810 align:middle line:84%
It depends on p and
on nothing else.

00:21:03.810 --> 00:21:06.290 align:middle line:90%
And it is indeed linear in w.

00:21:06.290 --> 00:21:09.650 align:middle line:84%
The linearity in w just
comes from the property that

00:21:09.650 --> 00:21:12.530 align:middle line:90%
alpha plus 1 minus alpha is 1.

00:21:12.530 --> 00:21:15.410 align:middle line:84%
w the alpha times w
to the 1 minus alpha.

00:21:15.410 --> 00:21:18.360 align:middle line:84%
Just add up the
power coefficients.

00:21:18.360 --> 00:21:22.010 align:middle line:84%
So this is all, so far,
for a single household,

00:21:22.010 --> 00:21:25.970 align:middle line:84%
hence neglecting to
put in notation h or i,

00:21:25.970 --> 00:21:28.290 align:middle line:84%
or whatever label
the household is.

00:21:28.290 --> 00:21:30.800 align:middle line:84%
However, if this
Cobb Douglas function

00:21:30.800 --> 00:21:33.560 align:middle line:84%
were the same over
all of the households,

00:21:33.560 --> 00:21:37.820 align:middle line:84%
then we have a
Gorman Polar form,

00:21:37.820 --> 00:21:41.930 align:middle line:84%
where all of the households
have the same intercept, a of p,

00:21:41.930 --> 00:21:44.360 align:middle line:90%
and the same slope term, b of p.

00:21:44.360 --> 00:21:48.530 align:middle line:84%
Likewise, if it were to be the
case that the alpha coefficient

00:21:48.530 --> 00:21:50.390 align:middle line:84%
varies across over
the households,

00:21:50.390 --> 00:21:53.480 align:middle line:84%
then this BSP is not going
to be common over all

00:21:53.480 --> 00:21:54.230 align:middle line:90%
of the households.

00:21:54.230 --> 00:21:57.620 align:middle line:84%
It's going to depend on
particular preferences.

00:21:57.620 --> 00:22:01.130 align:middle line:84%
So maybe that's illustrative
just how tenuous, already,

00:22:01.130 --> 00:22:02.930 align:middle line:90%
the assumption is going to be.

00:22:02.930 --> 00:22:06.290 align:middle line:84%
But it is going to be very
powerful if it's true.

00:22:06.290 --> 00:22:10.950 align:middle line:84%
So let's go at it and talk
about aggregate demand.

00:22:10.950 --> 00:22:14.960 align:middle line:84%
So we have an economy with
I households, I agents.

00:22:14.960 --> 00:22:18.500 align:middle line:90%
Their wealths are w1 through wI.

00:22:18.500 --> 00:22:20.210 align:middle line:90%
A wealth profile.

00:22:20.210 --> 00:22:25.010 align:middle line:84%
Let's define w bar to be the
aggregate total wealth, just

00:22:25.010 --> 00:22:27.770 align:middle line:84%
by summing up all of
the individual wealths.

00:22:27.770 --> 00:22:31.550 align:middle line:84%
And retain this notation
that xI of p and wI

00:22:31.550 --> 00:22:34.400 align:middle line:84%
is the demand
function for agent I.

00:22:34.400 --> 00:22:39.020 align:middle line:84%
The aggregate demand,
x bar, by definition,

00:22:39.020 --> 00:22:42.410 align:middle line:84%
will be the sum of the
individual demands.

00:22:42.410 --> 00:22:47.630 align:middle line:84%
And we write that notationally
as x bar of the vector--

00:22:47.630 --> 00:22:51.680 align:middle line:84%
the parameters of the problem,
namely, the common price vector

00:22:51.680 --> 00:22:53.930 align:middle line:90%
and individual wealths.

00:22:53.930 --> 00:22:56.750 align:middle line:84%
So that's the definition
of aggregate demand.

00:22:56.750 --> 00:23:00.170 align:middle line:84%
Nothing so far other
than the definition.

00:23:00.170 --> 00:23:02.660 align:middle line:84%
But the first question
about aggregation

00:23:02.660 --> 00:23:08.060 align:middle line:84%
is, can we find an aggregate
demand function that is special

00:23:08.060 --> 00:23:12.260 align:middle line:84%
in that it only depends on
total wealth in the population,

00:23:12.260 --> 00:23:16.200 align:middle line:84%
not how the wealth is
distributed in the population?

00:23:16.200 --> 00:23:19.580 align:middle line:84%
So the idea here is
this x bar of L--

00:23:19.580 --> 00:23:21.300 align:middle line:90%
which, again, was just defined.

00:23:21.300 --> 00:23:26.990 align:middle line:84%
But now, for the L-th
good, x bar of L at p and w

00:23:26.990 --> 00:23:29.450 align:middle line:90%
is the aggregate demand.

00:23:29.450 --> 00:23:33.800 align:middle line:84%
We're looking for this
function, capital X, now, of L--

00:23:33.800 --> 00:23:36.270 align:middle line:84%
capital, I guess,
for big aggregate,

00:23:36.270 --> 00:23:39.860 align:middle line:84%
which is a function of p,
of course, but now w bar.

00:23:39.860 --> 00:23:41.810 align:middle line:90%
So here's the content of it.

00:23:41.810 --> 00:23:44.810 align:middle line:84%
Or looking at it
this way, vector p,

00:23:44.810 --> 00:23:49.010 align:middle line:84%
yes, but the wealth component
in the aggregate demand

00:23:49.010 --> 00:23:51.950 align:middle line:84%
depends on the sum of
individual wealths only.

00:23:51.950 --> 00:23:54.590 align:middle line:84%
It doesn't depend
on the distribution.

00:23:54.590 --> 00:23:59.430 align:middle line:84%
On this slide, wealth enter
each agent's demand function.

00:23:59.430 --> 00:24:01.650 align:middle line:84%
And there's no
reason why it should

00:24:01.650 --> 00:24:06.180 align:middle line:84%
be representable to depend
only on the aggregate.

00:24:06.180 --> 00:24:09.210 align:middle line:84%
But we're going to look for
specifications of utility

00:24:09.210 --> 00:24:10.680 align:middle line:90%
where that's true.

00:24:10.680 --> 00:24:14.520 align:middle line:84%
And we haven't even asked
whether that aggregate demand

00:24:14.520 --> 00:24:19.740 align:middle line:84%
function, that capital X, comes
from some underlying utility

00:24:19.740 --> 00:24:21.480 align:middle line:90%
function as a solution.

00:24:21.480 --> 00:24:24.120 align:middle line:84%
We're just looking for
whether it depends only

00:24:24.120 --> 00:24:26.370 align:middle line:84%
on aggregate wealth,
or rather, might

00:24:26.370 --> 00:24:28.330 align:middle line:90%
depend on the distribution.

00:24:28.330 --> 00:24:30.750 align:middle line:84%
But this is a necessary
condition for there

00:24:30.750 --> 00:24:33.630 align:middle line:84%
to be a representative
household that's

00:24:33.630 --> 00:24:36.660 align:middle line:84%
maximizing some pseudo-utility
function that's going

00:24:36.660 --> 00:24:38.620 align:middle line:90%
to represent aggregate demand.

00:24:38.620 --> 00:24:40.870 align:middle line:84%
So we're kind of doing
one thing at a time.

00:24:40.870 --> 00:24:44.400 align:middle line:84%
So what is a necessary
condition for us

00:24:44.400 --> 00:24:47.010 align:middle line:84%
to be able to
aggregate up like that?

00:24:47.010 --> 00:24:49.920 align:middle line:84%
And it is that the
marginal impact

00:24:49.920 --> 00:24:54.060 align:middle line:84%
of wealth changes on demands,
say, for the L-th good,

00:24:54.060 --> 00:24:57.090 align:middle line:84%
is the same over all
of the households,

00:24:57.090 --> 00:25:00.150 align:middle line:84%
and that is also true
for all of the goods.

00:25:00.150 --> 00:25:04.650 align:middle line:84%
So whatever good L you pick,
whatever pairwise households I

00:25:04.650 --> 00:25:09.120 align:middle line:84%
and J you pick, they need
each to have the same income

00:25:09.120 --> 00:25:12.150 align:middle line:84%
effect of how demand
changes with wealth.

00:25:12.150 --> 00:25:16.140 align:middle line:84%
And here's the picture, which
you've kind of seen before.

00:25:16.140 --> 00:25:19.770 align:middle line:84%
These are linear
wealth expansion paths.

00:25:19.770 --> 00:25:23.460 align:middle line:84%
We're holding prices fixed of
the two goods, in this case.

00:25:23.460 --> 00:25:27.600 align:middle line:84%
And for consumer-- one
of these consumers,

00:25:27.600 --> 00:25:33.210 align:middle line:84%
we're tracing out the optimized
solution as we change wealth--

00:25:33.210 --> 00:25:36.690 align:middle line:84%
optimizing in the sense that
the household has achieved

00:25:36.690 --> 00:25:39.090 align:middle line:84%
maximal utility for
any given wealth

00:25:39.090 --> 00:25:41.670 align:middle line:84%
characterized by a tangency
between the indifference

00:25:41.670 --> 00:25:43.470 align:middle line:90%
curve and the budget line.

00:25:43.470 --> 00:25:45.960 align:middle line:84%
The other households
up here also

00:25:45.960 --> 00:25:48.000 align:middle line:90%
has a linear expansion path.

00:25:48.000 --> 00:25:51.030 align:middle line:84%
Now, it's true that
this household--

00:25:51.030 --> 00:25:55.260 align:middle line:84%
I, it is-- has higher
levels of demand for good 2

00:25:55.260 --> 00:26:01.350 align:middle line:84%
relative to good 1 than is
the case for household J.

00:26:01.350 --> 00:26:03.210 align:middle line:90%
So they're not identical.

00:26:03.210 --> 00:26:06.480 align:middle line:84%
But when you think about what
happens when you redistribute

00:26:06.480 --> 00:26:10.230 align:middle line:84%
wealth with these parallel
linear expansion paths,

00:26:10.230 --> 00:26:11.970 align:middle line:90%
the derivatives are the same.

00:26:11.970 --> 00:26:16.920 align:middle line:84%
We could, for example, take some
wealth away from household I.

00:26:16.920 --> 00:26:19.920 align:middle line:90%
We would move southwest.

00:26:19.920 --> 00:26:23.250 align:middle line:84%
We'd have the change in
x1, x2, and the change

00:26:23.250 --> 00:26:26.340 align:middle line:84%
in x1 little
triangle over there,

00:26:26.340 --> 00:26:29.520 align:middle line:84%
and give that
wealth to household

00:26:29.520 --> 00:26:32.550 align:middle line:84%
J, who would be
moving northeast.

00:26:32.550 --> 00:26:35.520 align:middle line:84%
But again, because these
lines are parallel,

00:26:35.520 --> 00:26:40.030 align:middle line:84%
we're going to have exactly
the same changes [INAUDIBLE]..

00:26:40.030 --> 00:26:42.210 align:middle line:84%
So the levels can be
different, but the derivatives

00:26:42.210 --> 00:26:42.930 align:middle line:90%
are the same.

00:26:42.930 --> 00:26:47.040 align:middle line:84%
And that picture represents
this condition 10,

00:26:47.040 --> 00:26:48.750 align:middle line:84%
that the income
effects are the same

00:26:48.750 --> 00:26:50.620 align:middle line:90%
over all of the households.

00:26:50.620 --> 00:26:56.460 align:middle line:84%
And that's a necessary condition
for only aggregate wealth

00:26:56.460 --> 00:26:57.840 align:middle line:90%
to matter.

00:26:57.840 --> 00:27:02.330 align:middle line:84%
Individual demands are moving
as you redistribute the wealth.

00:27:02.330 --> 00:27:06.300 align:middle line:84%
But what one guy gives up
is what the other guy gains.

00:27:06.300 --> 00:27:09.360 align:middle line:84%
So the total demand
isn't moving.

00:27:09.360 --> 00:27:12.450 align:middle line:84%
Who gets what is moving,
but not the total demand,

00:27:12.450 --> 00:27:16.480 align:middle line:90%
as we redistribute the wealth.

00:27:16.480 --> 00:27:20.080 align:middle line:84%
The next step is to find a
utility function that's going

00:27:20.080 --> 00:27:23.080 align:middle line:90%
to give that aggregate demand.

00:27:23.080 --> 00:27:25.960 align:middle line:84%
We're going to call this guy
the positive representative

00:27:25.960 --> 00:27:27.290 align:middle line:90%
household.

00:27:27.290 --> 00:27:29.080 align:middle line:84%
So let's have the
consumption set

00:27:29.080 --> 00:27:33.310 align:middle line:84%
be a subset of this
L-dimension Euclidean space.

00:27:33.310 --> 00:27:38.710 align:middle line:84%
The individual demands,
xI of vector p and wI

00:27:38.710 --> 00:27:40.780 align:middle line:84%
for households I
over all of them

00:27:40.780 --> 00:27:42.670 align:middle line:90%
to be the individual demands.

00:27:42.670 --> 00:27:47.080 align:middle line:84%
We're looking for a preference
ordering with a star on it

00:27:47.080 --> 00:27:50.890 align:middle line:84%
on the aggregate
consumption set,

00:27:50.890 --> 00:27:53.590 align:middle line:84%
and a particular utility
function, u star,

00:27:53.590 --> 00:27:56.620 align:middle line:84%
that represents this
preference ordering.

00:27:56.620 --> 00:28:00.580 align:middle line:84%
And that object, consumption
set and the preference ordering

00:28:00.580 --> 00:28:03.910 align:middle line:84%
in particular, is said to
represent or correspond

00:28:03.910 --> 00:28:06.760 align:middle line:84%
with a positive
representative household

00:28:06.760 --> 00:28:10.570 align:middle line:84%
if and only if the aggregate
demand, that capital

00:28:10.570 --> 00:28:15.400 align:middle line:84%
X of p and w bar, comes from
the utility maximization problem

00:28:15.400 --> 00:28:20.120 align:middle line:84%
where the utility function
is of the form u star.

00:28:20.120 --> 00:28:24.280 align:middle line:84%
So again, we're used to
utility maximization.

00:28:24.280 --> 00:28:26.860 align:middle line:90%
u star is some utility function.

00:28:26.860 --> 00:28:28.480 align:middle line:90%
We maximize it.

00:28:28.480 --> 00:28:31.810 align:middle line:84%
Oh, subject to the budget,
what is the budget?

00:28:31.810 --> 00:28:34.630 align:middle line:84%
It's like giving
this, quote, "person,"

00:28:34.630 --> 00:28:37.210 align:middle line:84%
this representative
household, the entire wealth

00:28:37.210 --> 00:28:38.950 align:middle line:90%
of the economy, w bar.

00:28:38.950 --> 00:28:41.770 align:middle line:84%
And this X thing, in
case you've forgotten,

00:28:41.770 --> 00:28:45.970 align:middle line:84%
this capital X of p and w bar,
was the object way back here

00:28:45.970 --> 00:28:49.780 align:middle line:84%
that we were looking
for, the aggregate demand

00:28:49.780 --> 00:28:52.540 align:middle line:84%
as a function only of
the sum of the wealths,

00:28:52.540 --> 00:28:54.970 align:middle line:90%
or aggregate wealth.

00:28:54.970 --> 00:28:59.470 align:middle line:84%
So under what conditions can
we find this amazing u star?

00:28:59.470 --> 00:29:02.480 align:middle line:90%
Yep, Gorman Polar form.

00:29:02.480 --> 00:29:05.620 align:middle line:84%
So a necessary and
sufficient condition

00:29:05.620 --> 00:29:08.350 align:middle line:84%
to get that equation
tend to be true

00:29:08.350 --> 00:29:13.180 align:middle line:84%
is that everybody's preferences
can be represented by 16,

00:29:13.180 --> 00:29:16.900 align:middle line:84%
namely, now with the
I's to be explicit,

00:29:16.900 --> 00:29:20.680 align:middle line:84%
the indirect utility function
for household or agent

00:29:20.680 --> 00:29:24.670 align:middle line:90%
I has this intercept and slope.

00:29:24.670 --> 00:29:28.840 align:middle line:84%
The intercept term can
actually depend on i.

00:29:28.840 --> 00:29:32.110 align:middle line:84%
We do allow that degree
of heterogeneity.

00:29:32.110 --> 00:29:35.920 align:middle line:84%
But the slope with
respect to w and wI

00:29:35.920 --> 00:29:38.890 align:middle line:84%
for household I does
not depend on i.

00:29:38.890 --> 00:29:42.150 align:middle line:90%
Common slope terms.

00:29:42.150 --> 00:29:44.120 align:middle line:84%
So again, to write
it out, the way

00:29:44.120 --> 00:29:48.530 align:middle line:84%
the indirect utility functions
for i and j respond to wealth

00:29:48.530 --> 00:29:49.380 align:middle line:90%
is the same.

00:29:49.380 --> 00:29:52.550 align:middle line:84%
Namely, it's bp, which
is not quite the picture

00:29:52.550 --> 00:29:54.950 align:middle line:84%
we were looking at,
but it's getting close,

00:29:54.950 --> 00:29:57.860 align:middle line:90%
as you can imagine.

00:29:57.860 --> 00:30:02.660 align:middle line:84%
So if 16 is true over
all households i,

00:30:02.660 --> 00:30:06.320 align:middle line:84%
then we can find
our amazing u star,

00:30:06.320 --> 00:30:08.330 align:middle line:84%
or in particular,
the indirect utility

00:30:08.330 --> 00:30:11.120 align:middle line:84%
function corresponding
to u star.

00:30:11.120 --> 00:30:14.780 align:middle line:84%
And it's going to look a lot
like the individual indirect

00:30:14.780 --> 00:30:17.120 align:middle line:84%
utility functions in
the sense that it's

00:30:17.120 --> 00:30:20.090 align:middle line:90%
written down as a times b of w.

00:30:20.090 --> 00:30:24.830 align:middle line:84%
The a star for the
representative consumer

00:30:24.830 --> 00:30:28.670 align:middle line:84%
is the sum of the
aI of ps over i.

00:30:28.670 --> 00:30:30.080 align:middle line:90%
So we just add them up.

00:30:30.080 --> 00:30:34.040 align:middle line:84%
And the b star is
the common b of p

00:30:34.040 --> 00:30:36.170 align:middle line:90%
over all of the households i.

00:30:36.170 --> 00:30:39.920 align:middle line:84%
So then this guy, represented by
the indirect utility function,

00:30:39.920 --> 00:30:43.060 align:middle line:84%
is the positive
representative household.

00:30:43.060 --> 00:30:48.850 align:middle line:84%
So it's an if and only thing,
but let's just go one way.

00:30:48.850 --> 00:30:53.200 align:middle line:84%
If and only if means if
they have these polar forms,

00:30:53.200 --> 00:30:55.150 align:middle line:84%
then it's
Gorman-agreeable and we

00:30:55.150 --> 00:30:56.860 align:middle line:90%
have a representative consumer.

00:30:56.860 --> 00:31:00.290 align:middle line:84%
And also, if we have a
representative consumer,

00:31:00.290 --> 00:31:01.900 align:middle line:84%
then the underlying
households have

00:31:01.900 --> 00:31:06.530 align:middle line:84%
to have utility
represented by 16.

00:31:06.530 --> 00:31:07.850 align:middle line:90%
So let's just go one way.

00:31:07.850 --> 00:31:12.220 align:middle line:84%
Suppose that preferences have
indirect utility functions that

00:31:12.220 --> 00:31:13.480 align:middle line:90%
satisfy 16.

00:31:13.480 --> 00:31:16.400 align:middle line:84%
We'll go from the micro
to the macro, so to speak.

00:31:16.400 --> 00:31:18.730 align:middle line:90%
Now, we use Roy's identity.

00:31:18.730 --> 00:31:22.180 align:middle line:84%
You were probably wondering
why we ever had that.

00:31:22.180 --> 00:31:26.650 align:middle line:84%
So demand of household i
for good l at price vector

00:31:26.650 --> 00:31:31.510 align:middle line:84%
p and wealth wi is just
this ratio of derivatives

00:31:31.510 --> 00:31:33.440 align:middle line:90%
with the minus sign out front.

00:31:33.440 --> 00:31:36.370 align:middle line:84%
And now, we use the
particular forms, namely,

00:31:36.370 --> 00:31:38.590 align:middle line:84%
the derivative of the
indirect utility function

00:31:38.590 --> 00:31:42.220 align:middle line:84%
with respect to wi is
namely just b of p,

00:31:42.220 --> 00:31:44.740 align:middle line:84%
because that's that
coefficient there.

00:31:44.740 --> 00:31:47.500 align:middle line:84%
And the derivative of the
indirect utility function

00:31:47.500 --> 00:31:50.470 align:middle line:90%
with respect to p is what?

00:31:50.470 --> 00:31:51.550 align:middle line:90%
Well, go back here.

00:31:51.550 --> 00:31:53.980 align:middle line:84%
It's indirect utility
function for household i.

00:31:53.980 --> 00:31:57.010 align:middle line:84%
Take derivatives with respect
to the intercept and the slope

00:31:57.010 --> 00:31:59.140 align:middle line:90%
term with respect to p.

00:31:59.140 --> 00:32:00.580 align:middle line:84%
So that's what's
written out here,

00:32:00.580 --> 00:32:02.500 align:middle line:84%
the derivative of the
intercept and slope

00:32:02.500 --> 00:32:03.910 align:middle line:90%
terms with respect to p.

00:32:03.910 --> 00:32:07.400 align:middle line:84%
And of course, that w is hanging
on there as a coefficient.

00:32:07.400 --> 00:32:09.250 align:middle line:90%
So this must be true.

00:32:09.250 --> 00:32:13.840 align:middle line:84%
Now, having derived the
demands of household i,

00:32:13.840 --> 00:32:16.600 align:middle line:84%
we can take the derivative
with respect to wealth.

00:32:16.600 --> 00:32:19.070 align:middle line:84%
And it's just going
to appear here.

00:32:19.070 --> 00:32:23.980 align:middle line:84%
So we get this times this as
the way demand is changing.

00:32:23.980 --> 00:32:26.800 align:middle line:84%
Well, one thing you can
see, on the right-hand side

00:32:26.800 --> 00:32:28.180 align:middle line:90%
here, there's no i.

00:32:28.180 --> 00:32:31.960 align:middle line:84%
So the change in demands
with respect to wealth

00:32:31.960 --> 00:32:34.900 align:middle line:84%
are the same across
all of the households,

00:32:34.900 --> 00:32:38.090 align:middle line:84%
and equal to this common
term on the right-hand side.

00:32:38.090 --> 00:32:41.440 align:middle line:84%
So this gives us that with
the indirect utility function,

00:32:41.440 --> 00:32:43.870 align:middle line:84%
we have these constant
income effects

00:32:43.870 --> 00:32:45.910 align:middle line:90%
over all of the households.

00:32:45.910 --> 00:32:49.150 align:middle line:84%
Now, the second thing we want
to show is not just that,

00:32:49.150 --> 00:32:52.390 align:middle line:84%
but that we can find this
amazing representative

00:32:52.390 --> 00:32:53.630 align:middle line:90%
consumer.

00:32:53.630 --> 00:32:59.470 align:middle line:84%
So we want-- when we maximize
whatever this v star is with

00:32:59.470 --> 00:33:01.150 align:middle line:90%
respect to--

00:33:01.150 --> 00:33:04.540 align:middle line:84%
when we get this maximized
solution for this star

00:33:04.540 --> 00:33:08.500 align:middle line:84%
representative consumer
and aggregate wealth w,

00:33:08.500 --> 00:33:11.185 align:middle line:84%
it should represent the sum
of the individual demands.

00:33:11.185 --> 00:33:14.070 align:middle line:90%


00:33:14.070 --> 00:33:18.900 align:middle line:84%
So you have this
expression already for--

00:33:18.900 --> 00:33:24.300 align:middle line:84%
let me remind you, the v
star, the candidate, is 17.

00:33:24.300 --> 00:33:27.630 align:middle line:84%
So we're going to
prove that it works.

00:33:27.630 --> 00:33:32.340 align:middle line:84%
Take v star indirect utility
to be this a star, b star,

00:33:32.340 --> 00:33:35.490 align:middle line:90%
w bar term.

00:33:35.490 --> 00:33:40.140 align:middle line:84%
Then by Roy's identity, that's
just another indirect utility

00:33:40.140 --> 00:33:41.320 align:middle line:90%
function.

00:33:41.320 --> 00:33:46.020 align:middle line:84%
So the demand that comes from
it at the aggregate wealth w bar

00:33:46.020 --> 00:33:49.950 align:middle line:84%
and price vector p
would just be the ratio

00:33:49.950 --> 00:33:54.210 align:middle line:84%
of these marginal effects
with a negative sign

00:33:54.210 --> 00:33:55.830 align:middle line:90%
out in front of it.

00:33:55.830 --> 00:33:58.900 align:middle line:84%
And of course, we know
the form of v star.

00:33:58.900 --> 00:34:02.370 align:middle line:84%
So at an aggregated level,
it's very much like before,

00:34:02.370 --> 00:34:08.320 align:middle line:84%
1 over bp, because that's
just the wealth coefficient.

00:34:08.320 --> 00:34:11.400 align:middle line:84%
And p enters into the
intercept and slope

00:34:11.400 --> 00:34:14.100 align:middle line:84%
term in this
aggregated equation--

00:34:14.100 --> 00:34:17.250 align:middle line:90%
aggregate indirect utility 17.

00:34:17.250 --> 00:34:20.190 align:middle line:90%
So we get this.

00:34:20.190 --> 00:34:23.820 align:middle line:84%
Remember that the
a star is the sum

00:34:23.820 --> 00:34:27.210 align:middle line:90%
of the ai's by construction.

00:34:27.210 --> 00:34:30.739 align:middle line:84%
So now, that is all written
out very explicitly.

00:34:30.739 --> 00:34:33.020 align:middle line:90%
Nothing going on with wealth.

00:34:33.020 --> 00:34:37.130 align:middle line:84%
But now, we get to just
take this summation

00:34:37.130 --> 00:34:39.000 align:middle line:90%
and pull it outside.

00:34:39.000 --> 00:34:41.449 align:middle line:84%
So we have the
demand that we want

00:34:41.449 --> 00:34:46.429 align:middle line:84%
is the summation over i of
what's left over after pulling

00:34:46.429 --> 00:34:47.239 align:middle line:90%
out the summation.

00:34:47.239 --> 00:34:49.489 align:middle line:90%
We have the individual terms.

00:34:49.489 --> 00:34:52.980 align:middle line:84%
But of course, that is
nothing other than, again,

00:34:52.980 --> 00:34:57.500 align:middle line:84%
from Roy's identity, the
underlying demands, which,

00:34:57.500 --> 00:35:00.960 align:middle line:84%
when we sum them up,
is aggregate demand.

00:35:00.960 --> 00:35:05.900 align:middle line:84%
So we've used this particular
utility function, 17,

00:35:05.900 --> 00:35:10.610 align:middle line:84%
to derive the aggregate
demand, which is now

00:35:10.610 --> 00:35:13.700 align:middle line:84%
proved to be the sum of
the individual demands,

00:35:13.700 --> 00:35:15.980 align:middle line:84%
and by this construction,
depends only

00:35:15.980 --> 00:35:18.260 align:middle line:90%
on aggregate wealth.

00:35:18.260 --> 00:35:20.510 align:middle line:90%
The w bar is missing there.

00:35:20.510 --> 00:35:23.290 align:middle line:90%
Questions?

00:35:23.290 --> 00:35:23.790 align:middle line:90%
All right.

00:35:23.790 --> 00:35:28.850 align:middle line:84%
So let me give you an example
of the underlying utility

00:35:28.850 --> 00:35:31.610 align:middle line:90%
functions and consumption sets.

00:35:31.610 --> 00:35:35.090 align:middle line:84%
Suppose, being explicit
about the heterogeneity,

00:35:35.090 --> 00:35:39.080 align:middle line:84%
each household i's
consumption set

00:35:39.080 --> 00:35:41.930 align:middle line:84%
is a subset of this
L-dimensional space.

00:35:41.930 --> 00:35:46.290 align:middle line:84%
Namely, they're, like,
subsistence or minimal bundles.

00:35:46.290 --> 00:35:53.130 align:middle line:84%
So the amount of good l cannot
be lower than some x lower bar

00:35:53.130 --> 00:35:54.990 align:middle line:90%
l per household i.

00:35:54.990 --> 00:35:56.670 align:middle line:90%
This is the heterogeneity.

00:35:56.670 --> 00:35:59.580 align:middle line:90%
It can depend on household i.

00:35:59.580 --> 00:36:04.260 align:middle line:84%
And let's have utility of
household i over vector

00:36:04.260 --> 00:36:08.220 align:middle line:84%
x just be the
difference to a power

00:36:08.220 --> 00:36:13.760 align:middle line:84%
between xl and those
minimal subsistence bundles.

00:36:13.760 --> 00:36:16.730 align:middle line:84%
So the heterogeneity is in
the subsistence bundles,

00:36:16.730 --> 00:36:18.840 align:middle line:90%
which can vary over households.

00:36:18.840 --> 00:36:21.170 align:middle line:90%
But the sigmas are the same.

00:36:21.170 --> 00:36:22.160 align:middle line:90%
It's not sigma i.

00:36:22.160 --> 00:36:26.330 align:middle line:84%
It's sigma, common, across
all of the households.

00:36:26.330 --> 00:36:29.050 align:middle line:84%
So if we had an
economy represented

00:36:29.050 --> 00:36:32.230 align:middle line:84%
by these consumption sets
and these preferences,

00:36:32.230 --> 00:36:36.290 align:middle line:84%
we could look at their
indirect utility.

00:36:36.290 --> 00:36:38.950 align:middle line:84%
And if you do the math,
you get this ugly thing.

00:36:38.950 --> 00:36:42.550 align:middle line:84%
But it does have the
right form, ai p plus bp

00:36:42.550 --> 00:36:45.640 align:middle line:90%
times wi for household i.

00:36:45.640 --> 00:36:47.380 align:middle line:90%
And then you add it up--

00:36:47.380 --> 00:36:51.430 align:middle line:84%
namely, add up this
guy over households i.

00:36:51.430 --> 00:36:56.620 align:middle line:84%
And you get the expression
at the bottom of the slide.

00:36:56.620 --> 00:36:59.080 align:middle line:84%
And in particular,
the heterogeneity

00:36:59.080 --> 00:37:02.330 align:middle line:84%
in the subsistence
bundles is right here.

00:37:02.330 --> 00:37:04.210 align:middle line:90%
So they're all different.

00:37:04.210 --> 00:37:06.610 align:middle line:90%
They have different minimums.

00:37:06.610 --> 00:37:10.360 align:middle line:84%
But miraculously, we're able
to add up those minimums

00:37:10.360 --> 00:37:13.390 align:middle line:84%
and call it kind of a
pseudo-subsistence bundle

00:37:13.390 --> 00:37:16.810 align:middle line:84%
for an aggregated
representative household who

00:37:16.810 --> 00:37:20.950 align:middle line:84%
would have the indirect
utility that's written out here

00:37:20.950 --> 00:37:22.780 align:middle line:90%
at the bottom of the slide.

00:37:22.780 --> 00:37:25.900 align:middle line:84%
I don't have too many more
examples in front of me today,

00:37:25.900 --> 00:37:27.490 align:middle line:90%
but I mean, I do want to give--

00:37:27.490 --> 00:37:29.800 align:middle line:84%
I did want to give
you one example,

00:37:29.800 --> 00:37:33.220 align:middle line:84%
because this indirect utility
space is a bit different

00:37:33.220 --> 00:37:34.540 align:middle line:90%
and a bit abstract.

00:37:34.540 --> 00:37:38.740 align:middle line:84%
So here, we actually start with
underlying utility functions.

00:37:38.740 --> 00:37:41.980 align:middle line:90%


00:37:41.980 --> 00:37:44.450 align:middle line:90%
I said all that in words.

00:37:44.450 --> 00:37:48.490 align:middle line:84%
So now, let's go to the
normative representative

00:37:48.490 --> 00:37:49.960 align:middle line:90%
household.

00:37:49.960 --> 00:37:52.120 align:middle line:90%
I should say, it's the same guy.

00:37:52.120 --> 00:37:54.010 align:middle line:90%
It's the same person.

00:37:54.010 --> 00:37:56.740 align:middle line:90%
It just has two characteristics.

00:37:56.740 --> 00:37:59.920 align:middle line:84%
It can be used for positive
economics in the sense

00:37:59.920 --> 00:38:04.420 align:middle line:84%
that it's predictive of what
the entire economy is doing,

00:38:04.420 --> 00:38:07.960 align:middle line:84%
and it can also be used
to make welfare statements

00:38:07.960 --> 00:38:11.920 align:middle line:84%
by a rank ordering over
the utility function.

00:38:11.920 --> 00:38:14.620 align:middle line:84%
But there's not, like, one
representative normative

00:38:14.620 --> 00:38:17.860 align:middle line:84%
household and one representative
positive household.

00:38:17.860 --> 00:38:19.840 align:middle line:84%
It's a given
representative household

00:38:19.840 --> 00:38:22.640 align:middle line:84%
with both positive and
normative characteristics,

00:38:22.640 --> 00:38:26.470 align:middle line:84%
and we are about to go
through the normative part.

00:38:26.470 --> 00:38:29.770 align:middle line:84%
So let's have the individual
demand functions--

00:38:29.770 --> 00:38:31.760 align:middle line:84%
this is-- the first
little paragraph

00:38:31.760 --> 00:38:36.730 align:middle line:84%
here is the positive part, that
these demands can be derived

00:38:36.730 --> 00:38:40.270 align:middle line:84%
as if through an aggregated
demand function given

00:38:40.270 --> 00:38:42.380 align:middle line:90%
the total wealth of the economy.

00:38:42.380 --> 00:38:45.160 align:middle line:84%
Now, we want to ask
the normative question.

00:38:45.160 --> 00:38:47.410 align:middle line:84%
Given a set of individual
demand functions,

00:38:47.410 --> 00:38:51.010 align:middle line:84%
can we find this fictitious
household i star such

00:38:51.010 --> 00:38:54.580 align:middle line:84%
that Pareto optimal
allocations in the economy

00:38:54.580 --> 00:38:58.480 align:middle line:84%
can be thought of as coming from
this representative household

00:38:58.480 --> 00:39:00.520 align:middle line:90%
maximizing utility?

00:39:00.520 --> 00:39:03.405 align:middle line:84%
I keep emphasizing
fictitious, amazing,

00:39:03.405 --> 00:39:04.780 align:middle line:84%
because I don't
want you to think

00:39:04.780 --> 00:39:06.470 align:middle line:90%
that this is a real person.

00:39:06.470 --> 00:39:08.720 align:middle line:90%
It's a construct.

00:39:08.720 --> 00:39:11.920 align:middle line:84%
So let's take our
underlying economy, which

00:39:11.920 --> 00:39:16.390 align:middle line:84%
we've been reading this line for
the last two or three lectures.

00:39:16.390 --> 00:39:21.640 align:middle line:84%
Underlying economy is script
E characterized by consumption

00:39:21.640 --> 00:39:24.040 align:middle line:84%
sets, utility functions
over all of the households,

00:39:24.040 --> 00:39:27.100 align:middle line:84%
production possibility
sets over all of the firms,

00:39:27.100 --> 00:39:30.010 align:middle line:90%
some aggregate endowment w bar.

00:39:30.010 --> 00:39:33.430 align:middle line:84%
Now, finally, we define a
normative representative

00:39:33.430 --> 00:39:36.820 align:middle line:84%
household with two
characteristics.

00:39:36.820 --> 00:39:41.320 align:middle line:84%
If we started with
an allocation x and y

00:39:41.320 --> 00:39:44.440 align:middle line:84%
and we found an alternative
allocation x prime,

00:39:44.440 --> 00:39:50.140 align:middle line:84%
y prime, which Pareto
dominates x, y, meaning

00:39:50.140 --> 00:39:53.860 align:middle line:84%
at least as good for some and
strictly better for others.

00:39:53.860 --> 00:39:58.120 align:middle line:84%
Then under u star,
evaluated that

00:39:58.120 --> 00:40:03.880 align:middle line:84%
to some of the prime bundle is
greater than u star evaluated

00:40:03.880 --> 00:40:05.380 align:middle line:90%
at the original bundle.

00:40:05.380 --> 00:40:08.350 align:middle line:84%
In other words, it's
kind of intuitive,

00:40:08.350 --> 00:40:11.110 align:middle line:90%
but it's not always true.

00:40:11.110 --> 00:40:13.840 align:middle line:84%
Here, for the definition
of Pareto dominance,

00:40:13.840 --> 00:40:16.450 align:middle line:84%
we're looking at individual
allocations over all

00:40:16.450 --> 00:40:19.360 align:middle line:84%
the households and
trying to find something

00:40:19.360 --> 00:40:21.280 align:middle line:84%
that's at least as good
for some and strictly

00:40:21.280 --> 00:40:22.790 align:middle line:90%
better for the others.

00:40:22.790 --> 00:40:26.710 align:middle line:84%
If we can find this amazing u
star, then all we need to do

00:40:26.710 --> 00:40:29.350 align:middle line:84%
is evaluate the
aggregates, namely,

00:40:29.350 --> 00:40:33.040 align:middle line:84%
the aggregate under x prime
and aggregate under x.

00:40:33.040 --> 00:40:34.240 align:middle line:90%
And what we need--

00:40:34.240 --> 00:40:37.600 align:middle line:84%
and apart from condition
2, the only thing we need--

00:40:37.600 --> 00:40:40.760 align:middle line:84%
is that u star assigns
a higher value.

00:40:40.760 --> 00:40:44.260 align:middle line:84%
In other words, it's easier to
look for Pareto improvements

00:40:44.260 --> 00:40:46.960 align:middle line:84%
just by looking
at the value under

00:40:46.960 --> 00:40:51.430 align:middle line:84%
the pseudo-utility function
evaluated at the aggregates.

00:40:51.430 --> 00:40:55.360 align:middle line:84%
So the second thing is
similar, but not quite.

00:40:55.360 --> 00:40:59.410 align:middle line:84%
Instead of starting with the
underlying micro distributions,

00:40:59.410 --> 00:41:03.700 align:middle line:84%
suppose that we had a feasible
allocation x and y, as before,

00:41:03.700 --> 00:41:07.510 align:middle line:84%
and an alternative feasible
allocation, x prime, y prime.

00:41:07.510 --> 00:41:10.720 align:middle line:84%
And we're given
that under u star,

00:41:10.720 --> 00:41:14.050 align:middle line:84%
the utility is higher
at the aggregates.

00:41:14.050 --> 00:41:16.330 align:middle line:84%
Then we want to
claim that there is

00:41:16.330 --> 00:41:19.270 align:middle line:84%
an alternative feasible
allocation which

00:41:19.270 --> 00:41:20.740 align:middle line:90%
Pareto dominates.

00:41:20.740 --> 00:41:23.290 align:middle line:84%
In other words, is
this xi allocation

00:41:23.290 --> 00:41:24.780 align:middle line:90%
Pareto optimal or not?

00:41:24.780 --> 00:41:27.670 align:middle line:84%
Not, if we can find
another allocation,

00:41:27.670 --> 00:41:30.760 align:middle line:84%
x prime, which
dominates, but dominates

00:41:30.760 --> 00:41:31.960 align:middle line:90%
in the sense of u star.

00:41:31.960 --> 00:41:34.360 align:middle line:84%
And u star is just
evaluating these things

00:41:34.360 --> 00:41:36.610 align:middle line:90%
at the summed up aggregates.

00:41:36.610 --> 00:41:39.920 align:middle line:84%
And actually, there's a subtlety
here which is important.

00:41:39.920 --> 00:41:42.190 align:middle line:90%
You can't just stop.

00:41:42.190 --> 00:41:43.900 align:middle line:90%
You may have to redistribute.

00:41:43.900 --> 00:41:45.740 align:middle line:84%
Well, here's what
I mean by that.

00:41:45.740 --> 00:41:48.220 align:middle line:84%
If this is true, there exists
an alternative feasible

00:41:48.220 --> 00:41:50.170 align:middle line:90%
allocation, tilde--

00:41:50.170 --> 00:41:51.910 align:middle line:90%
x tilde, y tilde--

00:41:51.910 --> 00:41:57.250 align:middle line:84%
such that the summation over x
tilde of the demands and so on

00:41:57.250 --> 00:42:02.620 align:middle line:84%
allocations is exactly the same
aggregate as under the prime,

00:42:02.620 --> 00:42:04.640 align:middle line:90%
and the y's aren't changing.

00:42:04.640 --> 00:42:06.610 align:middle line:84%
So this kind of
subtle step here,

00:42:06.610 --> 00:42:09.610 align:middle line:84%
it doesn't mean,
necessarily, that you

00:42:09.610 --> 00:42:13.660 align:middle line:84%
can stop with x prime
and y prime and claim

00:42:13.660 --> 00:42:17.230 align:middle line:84%
victory, because
if you stop there,

00:42:17.230 --> 00:42:20.380 align:middle line:84%
it's not necessarily true
that everyone's better off--

00:42:20.380 --> 00:42:22.270 align:middle line:90%
or no worse off.

00:42:22.270 --> 00:42:23.980 align:middle line:90%
Some people may be damaged.

00:42:23.980 --> 00:42:26.920 align:middle line:84%
In fact, maybe this is the
time to talk about free trade.

00:42:26.920 --> 00:42:29.530 align:middle line:84%
When we were looking
at that lecture,

00:42:29.530 --> 00:42:32.590 align:middle line:84%
we represented a country
by some indifference curve

00:42:32.590 --> 00:42:35.410 align:middle line:84%
as if from some u
star representative

00:42:35.410 --> 00:42:38.110 align:middle line:84%
household for the
whole country to look

00:42:38.110 --> 00:42:39.340 align:middle line:90%
at the direction of trade.

00:42:39.340 --> 00:42:41.540 align:middle line:84%
So we were getting
the country to agree

00:42:41.540 --> 00:42:44.750 align:middle line:84%
we get demand in
a positive sense

00:42:44.750 --> 00:42:47.630 align:middle line:84%
by looking at that
representative agent

00:42:47.630 --> 00:42:48.770 align:middle line:90%
indifference curve.

00:42:48.770 --> 00:42:52.880 align:middle line:84%
And it might have appeared
that the whole country could be

00:42:52.880 --> 00:42:55.290 align:middle line:90%
made better off by free trade.

00:42:55.290 --> 00:42:57.560 align:middle line:84%
On the other hand,
you saw in detail,

00:42:57.560 --> 00:42:59.420 align:middle line:90%
in two different lectures--

00:42:59.420 --> 00:43:02.300 align:middle line:84%
three, really--
that not everyone

00:43:02.300 --> 00:43:05.300 align:middle line:90%
is made off under free trade.

00:43:05.300 --> 00:43:08.030 align:middle line:84%
Remember, the households
that are relatively well

00:43:08.030 --> 00:43:12.710 align:middle line:84%
endowed with a factor that's
abundant are helped by exports.

00:43:12.710 --> 00:43:14.090 align:middle line:90%
The other guys are hurt.

00:43:14.090 --> 00:43:15.440 align:middle line:90%
Et cetera.

00:43:15.440 --> 00:43:18.050 align:middle line:84%
So how can we claim that
free trade makes everyone

00:43:18.050 --> 00:43:18.740 align:middle line:90%
better off?

00:43:18.740 --> 00:43:22.380 align:middle line:84%
We have to redistribute,
which is not always done.

00:43:22.380 --> 00:43:24.950 align:middle line:84%
Hence, people complain
about free trade

00:43:24.950 --> 00:43:26.900 align:middle line:90%
and they want tariffs.

00:43:26.900 --> 00:43:29.300 align:middle line:84%
Anyway, I'm belaboring
the fact that this lecture

00:43:29.300 --> 00:43:31.310 align:middle line:84%
is consistent with
the other ones,

00:43:31.310 --> 00:43:33.260 align:middle line:84%
except now, we're
finally in a position

00:43:33.260 --> 00:43:37.040 align:middle line:84%
to be able to talk explicitly
about redistribution

00:43:37.040 --> 00:43:41.360 align:middle line:84%
as a necessary part of
making everyone better off.

00:43:41.360 --> 00:43:43.460 align:middle line:84%
In other words, to
sum up, even when

00:43:43.460 --> 00:43:47.660 align:middle line:84%
we have preferences aggregating,
it is not necessarily the case

00:43:47.660 --> 00:43:50.600 align:middle line:84%
that everyone is made better
off under some alternative

00:43:50.600 --> 00:43:52.430 align:middle line:90%
allocation xi prime.

00:43:52.430 --> 00:43:57.420 align:middle line:84%
You have to redistribute
the underlying bundles.

00:43:57.420 --> 00:43:59.610 align:middle line:84%
So let's do the same
definition, but do it

00:43:59.610 --> 00:44:04.690 align:middle line:84%
in the space of indirect utility
instead of direct utility.

00:44:04.690 --> 00:44:07.000 align:middle line:84%
Suppose we're given
a vector of wealth,

00:44:07.000 --> 00:44:09.040 align:middle line:84%
as in the distribution
of income,

00:44:09.040 --> 00:44:13.660 align:middle line:84%
and some aggregate wealth
that corresponds with that.

00:44:13.660 --> 00:44:15.700 align:middle line:90%
p is a price vector.

00:44:15.700 --> 00:44:18.370 align:middle line:84%
Define the indirect
utility functions, again,

00:44:18.370 --> 00:44:20.290 align:middle line:90%
as we have been doing.

00:44:20.290 --> 00:44:23.740 align:middle line:84%
Now, we want to find
this miraculous star

00:44:23.740 --> 00:44:28.780 align:middle line:84%
person, this normative
representative household,

00:44:28.780 --> 00:44:33.130 align:middle line:84%
i star, that has an
indirect utility function v

00:44:33.130 --> 00:44:35.740 align:middle line:84%
star, evaluated at
the price vector

00:44:35.740 --> 00:44:38.720 align:middle line:84%
p and the aggregate
wealth w bar.

00:44:38.720 --> 00:44:41.500 align:middle line:84%
And there are two
conditions, 1 and 2,

00:44:41.500 --> 00:44:45.130 align:middle line:84%
that correspond with the one
in the allocation space xi

00:44:45.130 --> 00:44:46.180 align:middle line:90%
on the previous slide.

00:44:46.180 --> 00:44:49.630 align:middle line:84%
Namely, if you have
two configurations,

00:44:49.630 --> 00:44:52.750 align:middle line:90%
you start with a p and w wealth.

00:44:52.750 --> 00:44:55.810 align:middle line:84%
You're looking at an
alternative, p prime, w prime,

00:44:55.810 --> 00:44:58.180 align:middle line:84%
price vector in
wealth, such that

00:44:58.180 --> 00:45:00.640 align:middle line:84%
looking at the actual
real indirect utilities

00:45:00.640 --> 00:45:03.490 align:middle line:84%
of all the households, some
people are no worse off

00:45:03.490 --> 00:45:05.590 align:middle line:84%
and other people are
strictly better off

00:45:05.590 --> 00:45:07.330 align:middle line:90%
under the prime allocation.

00:45:07.330 --> 00:45:10.720 align:middle line:84%
So that's the statement
of Pareto dominance

00:45:10.720 --> 00:45:13.480 align:middle line:84%
in the space of indirect
utility functions.

00:45:13.480 --> 00:45:16.300 align:middle line:84%
And what we want
is a way to do it

00:45:16.300 --> 00:45:19.930 align:middle line:84%
more easily through the
star, the indirect utility

00:45:19.930 --> 00:45:22.150 align:middle line:84%
of the normative
representative household,

00:45:22.150 --> 00:45:26.020 align:middle line:84%
which is just evaluating
the alternative scenario,

00:45:26.020 --> 00:45:27.910 align:middle line:90%
p prime and w prime.

00:45:27.910 --> 00:45:31.010 align:middle line:84%
But it's w prime added up
over all of the households.

00:45:31.010 --> 00:45:33.280 align:middle line:84%
So we're just using
aggregate wealth here

00:45:33.280 --> 00:45:35.800 align:middle line:84%
on the left-hand side,
and also aggregate wealth

00:45:35.800 --> 00:45:38.920 align:middle line:84%
on the right-hand side, when
we're thinking about trying to,

00:45:38.920 --> 00:45:41.110 align:middle line:84%
quote, unquote,
"Pareto dominate."

00:45:41.110 --> 00:45:45.550 align:middle line:84%
So just like before, it's
very intuitive, but amazing

00:45:45.550 --> 00:45:48.820 align:middle line:84%
when it's true, that the way
to look for Pareto dominating

00:45:48.820 --> 00:45:54.040 align:middle line:84%
allocations is just to evaluate
the aggregated allocations

00:45:54.040 --> 00:45:57.580 align:middle line:84%
and see whether you get a
higher value under v star.

00:45:57.580 --> 00:46:02.470 align:middle line:84%
Likewise, going the other way,
start with the aggregate wealth

00:46:02.470 --> 00:46:03.910 align:middle line:90%
and price vector p.

00:46:03.910 --> 00:46:09.040 align:middle line:84%
Look at an alternative scenario,
p prime and w bar prime, such

00:46:09.040 --> 00:46:12.370 align:middle line:84%
that the utility
under v star is higher

00:46:12.370 --> 00:46:14.410 align:middle line:90%
in the alternative allocation.

00:46:14.410 --> 00:46:18.310 align:middle line:84%
If that's true, then there
exists an alternative income

00:46:18.310 --> 00:46:21.880 align:middle line:84%
distribution w
prime which adds up

00:46:21.880 --> 00:46:24.910 align:middle line:84%
to the aggregate wealth
in the alternative--

00:46:24.910 --> 00:46:28.150 align:middle line:84%
the dominating allocation
with the prime on it.

00:46:28.150 --> 00:46:30.910 align:middle line:90%
Now, again, let's pause here.

00:46:30.910 --> 00:46:34.570 align:middle line:84%
This alternative income
means an income distribution

00:46:34.570 --> 00:46:37.660 align:middle line:84%
that works under
the prime scenario

00:46:37.660 --> 00:46:42.520 align:middle line:84%
relative to the initial income
distribution in the baseline

00:46:42.520 --> 00:46:43.940 align:middle line:90%
without the prime.

00:46:43.940 --> 00:46:47.830 align:middle line:84%
So we have to have the
freedom to distribute wealth,

00:46:47.830 --> 00:46:51.460 align:middle line:84%
not necessarily according
to private ownership, when

00:46:51.460 --> 00:46:55.510 align:middle line:84%
we change the prices and so on,
but potentially, with transfers

00:46:55.510 --> 00:46:57.550 align:middle line:90%
of wealth across the agents--

00:46:57.550 --> 00:47:00.310 align:middle line:84%
giving to some, taking
away from others,

00:47:00.310 --> 00:47:02.680 align:middle line:84%
as in the second
welfare theorem,

00:47:02.680 --> 00:47:05.440 align:middle line:84%
where we've seen this kind
of redistribution before.

00:47:05.440 --> 00:47:09.670 align:middle line:84%
So we find this
alternative such that we're

00:47:09.670 --> 00:47:12.880 align:middle line:84%
getting Pareto dominance in
the underlying indirect utility

00:47:12.880 --> 00:47:13.930 align:middle line:90%
functions.

00:47:13.930 --> 00:47:17.230 align:middle line:84%
Not worse for anyone and
strictly better for some.

00:47:17.230 --> 00:47:20.230 align:middle line:84%
So how do we find this
representative household,

00:47:20.230 --> 00:47:23.200 align:middle line:84%
or the representative household
with this normative property?

00:47:23.200 --> 00:47:27.580 align:middle line:84%
Same guy, Gorman Polar form,
although this is getting

00:47:27.580 --> 00:47:29.530 align:middle line:90%
stated as a proposition.

00:47:29.530 --> 00:47:33.580 align:middle line:84%
If we have this Gorman Polar
form with this particular way

00:47:33.580 --> 00:47:37.720 align:middle line:84%
that heterogeneity is entering
into the indirect utility

00:47:37.720 --> 00:47:41.740 align:middle line:84%
functions, then when we look at
the indirect utility function

00:47:41.740 --> 00:47:45.940 align:middle line:84%
under the aggregate, being in
particular the sum of the ai

00:47:45.940 --> 00:47:50.770 align:middle line:84%
plus b times w, that is
the normative household.

00:47:50.770 --> 00:47:54.410 align:middle line:84%
We already proved the
positive part earlier.

00:47:54.410 --> 00:47:55.810 align:middle line:90%
Now, it's normative.

00:47:55.810 --> 00:47:58.600 align:middle line:84%
I put positive and
normative both on the slide

00:47:58.600 --> 00:48:00.730 align:middle line:84%
to make the point
that, as I've said,

00:48:00.730 --> 00:48:03.400 align:middle line:84%
we're not looking for a
normative household that's

00:48:03.400 --> 00:48:05.590 align:middle line:84%
different from the
positive household.

00:48:05.590 --> 00:48:07.630 align:middle line:84%
We're looking for this
representative household

00:48:07.630 --> 00:48:09.220 align:middle line:90%
with both attributes.

00:48:09.220 --> 00:48:11.200 align:middle line:84%
We proved the positive
thing earlier.

00:48:11.200 --> 00:48:13.780 align:middle line:84%
Now, we need to prove
the normative part.

00:48:13.780 --> 00:48:20.020 align:middle line:84%
So suppose we have those Gorman
Polar form, in particular,

00:48:20.020 --> 00:48:23.800 align:middle line:84%
to figure out which direction
we're going from the condition

00:48:23.800 --> 00:48:25.630 align:middle line:90%
1, this guy here.

00:48:25.630 --> 00:48:27.190 align:middle line:90%
Condition 1.

00:48:27.190 --> 00:48:31.480 align:middle line:84%
So we have a rank ordering under
the actual indirect utility

00:48:31.480 --> 00:48:34.780 align:middle line:84%
functions being explicit
about household i.

00:48:34.780 --> 00:48:40.660 align:middle line:84%
So under the vi's,
not worse for some

00:48:40.660 --> 00:48:42.800 align:middle line:90%
and strictly better for others.

00:48:42.800 --> 00:48:44.440 align:middle line:90%
So we're given that.

00:48:44.440 --> 00:48:49.420 align:middle line:84%
Now, we want to prove that
when we evaluate under v star

00:48:49.420 --> 00:48:52.540 align:middle line:84%
using the aggregates,
we get strict dominance.

00:48:52.540 --> 00:48:56.650 align:middle line:84%
So let's look at it. v star
under the aggregate alternative

00:48:56.650 --> 00:49:00.760 align:middle line:84%
prime allocation is-- and this
is just now writing things out.

00:49:00.760 --> 00:49:06.930 align:middle line:84%
This is the definition of the
indirect utility function star,

00:49:06.930 --> 00:49:08.870 align:middle line:90%
the one that's going to work.

00:49:08.870 --> 00:49:12.610 align:middle line:84%
And then as we keep going
across these equations,

00:49:12.610 --> 00:49:17.080 align:middle line:84%
we recognize, again, the
taking the summation over I

00:49:17.080 --> 00:49:19.990 align:middle line:84%
out in front of all of it,
that we're just adding up

00:49:19.990 --> 00:49:21.700 align:middle line:90%
the indirect utility functions.

00:49:21.700 --> 00:49:23.920 align:middle line:84%
But again, we're given
not worse for some

00:49:23.920 --> 00:49:25.310 align:middle line:90%
and strictly better for others.

00:49:25.310 --> 00:49:27.670 align:middle line:84%
So when we add up the
indirect utility functions

00:49:27.670 --> 00:49:30.010 align:middle line:84%
under the prime
allocation and compare it

00:49:30.010 --> 00:49:33.100 align:middle line:84%
to the original allocation,
it must be strict dominance.

00:49:33.100 --> 00:49:35.740 align:middle line:84%
And then if you reverse
the ordering of these

00:49:35.740 --> 00:49:39.460 align:middle line:84%
vi's, collecting terms and
going back toward the left-hand

00:49:39.460 --> 00:49:40.060 align:middle line:90%
side--

00:49:40.060 --> 00:49:42.580 align:middle line:84%
not under prime, but
under the baseline--

00:49:42.580 --> 00:49:45.550 align:middle line:84%
you would get this
star indirect utility

00:49:45.550 --> 00:49:47.830 align:middle line:84%
for the representative
household.

00:49:47.830 --> 00:49:53.080 align:middle line:84%
So the bottom line is the v star
under prime strictly greater

00:49:53.080 --> 00:49:55.540 align:middle line:90%
than v star under the baseline.

00:49:55.540 --> 00:49:58.280 align:middle line:90%
And we proved one.

00:49:58.280 --> 00:50:00.610 align:middle line:84%
The second thing we
want to prove is this--

00:50:00.610 --> 00:50:03.830 align:middle line:84%
that we have an
initial allocation

00:50:03.830 --> 00:50:07.720 align:middle line:84%
and we're looking at a prime
allocation that gives higher

00:50:07.720 --> 00:50:11.350 align:middle line:84%
indirect utility for the
aggregated household.

00:50:11.350 --> 00:50:13.810 align:middle line:84%
And then we want to
find a way to assign

00:50:13.810 --> 00:50:18.680 align:middle line:84%
wealth that makes everyone
better off, essentially.

00:50:18.680 --> 00:50:23.300 align:middle line:84%
So again, from 2, we
have this as a given,

00:50:23.300 --> 00:50:26.780 align:middle line:84%
that v star returns a higher
value under the prime relative

00:50:26.780 --> 00:50:28.550 align:middle line:90%
to the baseline.

00:50:28.550 --> 00:50:30.590 align:middle line:84%
We want to construct
an alternative income

00:50:30.590 --> 00:50:34.340 align:middle line:84%
distribution-- seems like
that might be hard to do--

00:50:34.340 --> 00:50:36.670 align:middle line:84%
that makes everyone,
in fact, I'm

00:50:36.670 --> 00:50:38.720 align:middle line:84%
going to show you,
strictly better off.

00:50:38.720 --> 00:50:41.180 align:middle line:84%
Actually, strict
dominance for everyone.

00:50:41.180 --> 00:50:45.680 align:middle line:84%
And it's actually very
constructive and intuitive.

00:50:45.680 --> 00:50:50.000 align:middle line:84%
We're already given here
that we have this equation

00:50:50.000 --> 00:50:54.480 align:middle line:84%
30 at the aggregates,
the left-hand side

00:50:54.480 --> 00:50:56.110 align:middle line:84%
being greater than
the right-hand side.

00:50:56.110 --> 00:50:59.400 align:middle line:84%
So take the difference
and call it c.

00:50:59.400 --> 00:51:02.760 align:middle line:84%
It's a positive constant
now, the rest of the thing

00:51:02.760 --> 00:51:07.110 align:middle line:84%
is just writing out what v
star is under prime and v star

00:51:07.110 --> 00:51:11.520 align:middle line:84%
is under the baseline,
and then collecting terms.

00:51:11.520 --> 00:51:15.780 align:middle line:84%
The only reason to do this part
using the definition of v star

00:51:15.780 --> 00:51:18.690 align:middle line:84%
is to go searching
for the wealth levels

00:51:18.690 --> 00:51:24.980 align:middle line:84%
that we want, namely, let's give
each household their proportion

00:51:24.980 --> 00:51:25.480 align:middle line:90%
of c.

00:51:25.480 --> 00:51:28.000 align:middle line:84%
There are i households
in the economy.

00:51:28.000 --> 00:51:30.400 align:middle line:90%
Give each one c over i.

00:51:30.400 --> 00:51:34.160 align:middle line:84%
So we start with the baseline
in terms of the indirect utility

00:51:34.160 --> 00:51:34.660 align:middle line:90%
function.

00:51:34.660 --> 00:51:39.100 align:middle line:84%
We add on to the baseline
this positive constant.

00:51:39.100 --> 00:51:43.420 align:middle line:84%
And we want that to be
the indirect utility

00:51:43.420 --> 00:51:46.160 align:middle line:84%
per household i under
the alternative.

00:51:46.160 --> 00:51:49.990 align:middle line:84%
So now, we can just solve
this equation for wi.

00:51:49.990 --> 00:51:52.690 align:middle line:90%
It's almost mechanical.

00:51:52.690 --> 00:51:57.280 align:middle line:84%
These are, though, the required
new distributions of wealth

00:51:57.280 --> 00:51:58.430 align:middle line:90%
that will work.

00:51:58.430 --> 00:51:59.560 align:middle line:90%
Why does it work?

00:51:59.560 --> 00:52:03.200 align:middle line:84%
Well, working backwards,
if you give them this,

00:52:03.200 --> 00:52:05.390 align:middle line:90%
then we have this equation.

00:52:05.390 --> 00:52:08.290 align:middle line:84%
And you can also see,
because we've just

00:52:08.290 --> 00:52:11.650 align:middle line:84%
added a constant to the
indirect utility function,

00:52:11.650 --> 00:52:14.320 align:middle line:84%
that each household i
under the alternative

00:52:14.320 --> 00:52:18.010 align:middle line:84%
is having more utility
than under the baseline.

00:52:18.010 --> 00:52:24.250 align:middle line:84%
That's this vi of p prime
w prime, vi of p and wi,

00:52:24.250 --> 00:52:28.180 align:middle line:90%
plus this proportional constant.

00:52:28.180 --> 00:52:31.140 align:middle line:84%
So it's almost trivial, because
now, we've gone the other way.

00:52:31.140 --> 00:52:35.950 align:middle line:90%
We proved 2, this thing.

00:52:35.950 --> 00:52:40.980 align:middle line:84%
So we've succeeded, if they
have these Gorman Polar forms,

00:52:40.980 --> 00:52:44.880 align:middle line:84%
in constructing a
pseudo-utility function

00:52:44.880 --> 00:52:48.360 align:middle line:84%
over the indirect utility
function over the aggregates.

00:52:48.360 --> 00:52:50.550 align:middle line:90%
Questions?

00:52:50.550 --> 00:52:51.050 align:middle line:90%
OK.

00:52:51.050 --> 00:52:54.680 align:middle line:84%
So now let's go back
to the Pareto problem.

00:52:54.680 --> 00:52:57.260 align:middle line:84%
In particular, we did
a version of this slide

00:52:57.260 --> 00:52:59.450 align:middle line:84%
when we did the second
welfare theorem.

00:52:59.450 --> 00:53:03.020 align:middle line:84%
We have this underlying economy
with consumption, preferences,

00:53:03.020 --> 00:53:06.380 align:middle line:84%
production functions,
aggregate, endowments,

00:53:06.380 --> 00:53:13.550 align:middle line:84%
satisfying non-negative orthant,
and differentiable convex

00:53:13.550 --> 00:53:16.910 align:middle line:84%
production sets or
concave transformations,

00:53:16.910 --> 00:53:19.760 align:middle line:84%
non-negative
aggregate resources,

00:53:19.760 --> 00:53:23.660 align:middle line:84%
consumption sets
having interior points,

00:53:23.660 --> 00:53:26.480 align:middle line:84%
utility functions
being strictly concave,

00:53:26.480 --> 00:53:31.100 align:middle line:84%
and also an interior point with
respect to aggregate resources.

00:53:31.100 --> 00:53:33.710 align:middle line:84%
I'm rushing a bit, but
only because you've

00:53:33.710 --> 00:53:36.190 align:middle line:90%
seen this slide before.

00:53:36.190 --> 00:53:39.070 align:middle line:84%
If all of that is
true, then we can

00:53:39.070 --> 00:53:44.620 align:middle line:84%
solve this Pareto problem to
get Pareto optimal allocations.

00:53:44.620 --> 00:53:48.370 align:middle line:84%
This is just maximizing lambda
weighted sums of utilities

00:53:48.370 --> 00:53:50.740 align:middle line:84%
subject to consumption
being feasible,

00:53:50.740 --> 00:53:53.860 align:middle line:84%
production being feasible,
and the resource constraints

00:53:53.860 --> 00:53:55.060 align:middle line:90%
being satisfied.

00:53:55.060 --> 00:53:56.920 align:middle line:90%
Demand equals supply.

00:53:56.920 --> 00:53:59.440 align:middle line:84%
I should say,
allocations are feasible

00:53:59.440 --> 00:54:02.290 align:middle line:84%
given endowments in
the production set.

00:54:02.290 --> 00:54:03.760 align:middle line:90%
Problem?

00:54:03.760 --> 00:54:05.770 align:middle line:90%
What are the lambdas?

00:54:05.770 --> 00:54:08.860 align:middle line:84%
We move the lambdas around, we
get different Pareto optimum.

00:54:08.860 --> 00:54:11.740 align:middle line:84%
That's what we did with
the second welfare theorem.

00:54:11.740 --> 00:54:15.760 align:middle line:84%
And we've used this with risk
sharing in many applications

00:54:15.760 --> 00:54:17.260 align:middle line:90%
previously.

00:54:17.260 --> 00:54:20.650 align:middle line:84%
But we had to keep
track of the lambdas.

00:54:20.650 --> 00:54:24.420 align:middle line:84%
Here's what happens with
the representative consumer.

00:54:24.420 --> 00:54:25.890 align:middle line:90%
No more lambdas.

00:54:25.890 --> 00:54:28.290 align:middle line:90%
Now, we just maximize utility.

00:54:28.290 --> 00:54:32.400 align:middle line:84%
Well, this x is now
aggregate consumption.

00:54:32.400 --> 00:54:34.920 align:middle line:84%
Production sets are
the same as before.

00:54:34.920 --> 00:54:38.580 align:middle line:84%
Resource constraint's the
same in the aggregate.

00:54:38.580 --> 00:54:40.740 align:middle line:90%
I mean, x is aggregate.

00:54:40.740 --> 00:54:44.640 align:middle line:84%
Aggregated x is entering into
the pseudo utility function u

00:54:44.640 --> 00:54:47.340 align:middle line:84%
star, and we want to
find the highest u.

00:54:47.340 --> 00:54:54.180 align:middle line:84%
Remember why-- because we
already proved this, right?

00:54:54.180 --> 00:54:57.060 align:middle line:84%
It's enough to look at
you star in the aggregates

00:54:57.060 --> 00:55:00.900 align:middle line:84%
in the sense of satisfying
both these conditions.

00:55:00.900 --> 00:55:02.470 align:middle line:84%
And that's what
we're doing here.

00:55:02.470 --> 00:55:06.270 align:middle line:84%
We're just looking in
the space of aggregates

00:55:06.270 --> 00:55:09.630 align:middle line:84%
under this pseudo-utility
function u star.

00:55:09.630 --> 00:55:11.730 align:middle line:84%
If we're not maximizing
it, then when

00:55:11.730 --> 00:55:14.340 align:middle line:84%
we move in a direction
that improves it,

00:55:14.340 --> 00:55:16.290 align:middle line:84%
we're actually improving
the welfare of all

00:55:16.290 --> 00:55:17.880 align:middle line:90%
of the individual households.

00:55:17.880 --> 00:55:21.330 align:middle line:84%
We'll, in a sense,
Pareto dominate.

00:55:21.330 --> 00:55:25.390 align:middle line:84%
So simple to write,
but extremely powerful.

00:55:25.390 --> 00:55:28.480 align:middle line:84%
And this-- so this is
contemporary macro.

00:55:28.480 --> 00:55:32.430 align:middle line:84%
This is what is usually
assumed in macroeconomics

00:55:32.430 --> 00:55:34.950 align:middle line:90%
or aggregative economics.

00:55:34.950 --> 00:55:38.640 align:middle line:84%
No reference to redistributions
or wealth, underlying wealths,

00:55:38.640 --> 00:55:39.450 align:middle line:90%
or whatever.

00:55:39.450 --> 00:55:42.420 align:middle line:84%
So mesmerized by the
individual household

00:55:42.420 --> 00:55:44.610 align:middle line:84%
that we forget to spell
out the underpinnings,

00:55:44.610 --> 00:55:48.120 align:middle line:84%
and in particular, the
assumptions that are needed.

00:55:48.120 --> 00:55:49.650 align:middle line:90%
Are they satisfied?

00:55:49.650 --> 00:55:51.870 align:middle line:90%
No, typically not.

00:55:51.870 --> 00:55:54.870 align:middle line:84%
That previous lecture
on micro data,

00:55:54.870 --> 00:55:59.100 align:middle line:84%
we saw that income expansion
paths are a special case.

00:55:59.100 --> 00:56:03.660 align:middle line:84%
In particular, there are
non-linear expansion paths.

00:56:03.660 --> 00:56:07.980 align:middle line:84%
As we change income, expenditure
shares go up for some goods.

00:56:07.980 --> 00:56:10.470 align:middle line:90%
We call them luxury goods.

00:56:10.470 --> 00:56:13.380 align:middle line:84%
Expenditure shares go
down for other goods.

00:56:13.380 --> 00:56:15.090 align:middle line:90%
We call them necessities.

00:56:15.090 --> 00:56:16.000 align:middle line:90%
And so on.

00:56:16.000 --> 00:56:17.760 align:middle line:90%
So that's what's in the data.

00:56:17.760 --> 00:56:20.590 align:middle line:90%
Engel found this very early on.

00:56:20.590 --> 00:56:22.860 align:middle line:84%
And we presented
other applications,

00:56:22.860 --> 00:56:27.240 align:middle line:84%
Giffen goods being an extreme
version of the case when

00:56:27.240 --> 00:56:30.060 align:middle line:84%
the income effects,
through necessities, are

00:56:30.060 --> 00:56:32.760 align:middle line:84%
so strong that they
dominate the price effects.

00:56:32.760 --> 00:56:36.060 align:middle line:84%
Well, maybe one can hope
that as an approximation,

00:56:36.060 --> 00:56:38.220 align:middle line:84%
even though we
would not literally

00:56:38.220 --> 00:56:41.760 align:middle line:84%
satisfy the assumptions,
that those income effects

00:56:41.760 --> 00:56:43.440 align:middle line:90%
come close to canceling out.

00:56:43.440 --> 00:56:45.480 align:middle line:90%
That's kind of the best case.

00:56:45.480 --> 00:56:47.710 align:middle line:90%
Macro with micro underpinnings.

00:56:47.710 --> 00:56:49.350 align:middle line:84%
It's a reference to
the trade lecture.

00:56:49.350 --> 00:56:51.720 align:middle line:84%
I've already given
you my spiel on that

00:56:51.720 --> 00:56:54.840 align:middle line:84%
this afternoon about
the gains to trade

00:56:54.840 --> 00:56:57.540 align:middle line:84%
and the fact that we have
losers, although the theorem is

00:56:57.540 --> 00:57:02.190 align:middle line:84%
telling us that if we have
representative consumer, then

00:57:02.190 --> 00:57:05.220 align:middle line:84%
we're safe in looking
at the max, both

00:57:05.220 --> 00:57:06.660 align:middle line:90%
the positive and the normative.

00:57:06.660 --> 00:57:08.970 align:middle line:84%
But it will require
redistribution

00:57:08.970 --> 00:57:10.590 align:middle line:90%
of a particular kind.

00:57:10.590 --> 00:57:15.840 align:middle line:84%
And finally, the economic
impact of COVID-19.

00:57:15.840 --> 00:57:18.600 align:middle line:84%
I put that in there to
remind you of things

00:57:18.600 --> 00:57:21.360 align:middle line:84%
that we found in that
lecture when I was reviewing

00:57:21.360 --> 00:57:23.020 align:middle line:90%
what the impact has been.

00:57:23.020 --> 00:57:26.220 align:middle line:84%
And we had relatively
poor households

00:57:26.220 --> 00:57:29.580 align:middle line:84%
who were unemployed cutting
back on expenditure,

00:57:29.580 --> 00:57:32.040 align:middle line:84%
or potentially
increasing expenditure

00:57:32.040 --> 00:57:34.290 align:middle line:84%
only if they got the
government money,

00:57:34.290 --> 00:57:38.010 align:middle line:84%
and also looked at
higher-income households

00:57:38.010 --> 00:57:40.440 align:middle line:90%
through JP Morgan's data set.

00:57:40.440 --> 00:57:44.650 align:middle line:84%
And those guys had different
expenditure patterns.

00:57:44.650 --> 00:57:49.170 align:middle line:84%
So it does not seem as though
these effects are canceling out

00:57:49.170 --> 00:57:52.395 align:middle line:84%
when we actually look at
the underlying micro data.

00:57:52.395 --> 00:57:54.540 align:middle line:84%
I mean, to cancel
out we wouldn't

00:57:54.540 --> 00:57:57.030 align:middle line:90%
see anything happening--

00:57:57.030 --> 00:57:58.440 align:middle line:90%
well, I should be careful here.

00:57:58.440 --> 00:58:01.770 align:middle line:84%
There is an aggregate
adverse shock, obviously.

00:58:01.770 --> 00:58:06.010 align:middle line:84%
We're all suffering from
it, at least indirectly.

00:58:06.010 --> 00:58:07.990 align:middle line:90%
So the aggregates are down.

00:58:07.990 --> 00:58:11.260 align:middle line:84%
But then the question
is, do other changes

00:58:11.260 --> 00:58:13.420 align:middle line:90%
balance out at the aggregate?

00:58:13.420 --> 00:58:17.570 align:middle line:84%
And the data I presented to
you suggest that's not true.

00:58:17.570 --> 00:58:18.790 align:middle line:90%
So questions?

00:58:18.790 --> 00:58:21.500 align:middle line:90%


00:58:21.500 --> 00:58:26.390 align:middle line:84%
AUDIENCE: Can I ask a
question about the slide 22?

00:58:26.390 --> 00:58:27.585 align:middle line:90%
ROBERT TOWNSEND: 22?

00:58:27.585 --> 00:58:28.210 align:middle line:90%
AUDIENCE: Yeah.

00:58:28.210 --> 00:58:37.315 align:middle line:90%


00:58:37.315 --> 00:58:38.190 align:middle line:90%
ROBERT TOWNSEND: Yes?

00:58:38.190 --> 00:58:40.400 align:middle line:90%
AUDIENCE: Yeah, here.

00:58:40.400 --> 00:58:42.920 align:middle line:90%
I'm a little bit confusing that.

00:58:42.920 --> 00:58:48.050 align:middle line:84%
Do we do assume that
the sum of x prime

00:58:48.050 --> 00:58:50.930 align:middle line:90%
will equal to the sum of x here?

00:58:50.930 --> 00:58:54.500 align:middle line:84%
Because in the slide
21, we say that,

00:58:54.500 --> 00:58:57.380 align:middle line:84%
at the [? center ?]
of the allocation

00:58:57.380 --> 00:58:59.960 align:middle line:90%
should be the same as original.

00:58:59.960 --> 00:59:02.240 align:middle line:90%
And the sum of production--

00:59:02.240 --> 00:59:05.820 align:middle line:84%
the production is the
equal to the original.

00:59:05.820 --> 00:59:13.850 align:middle line:84%
So when you go from 21 to
22, do we still assume this?

00:59:13.850 --> 00:59:15.850 align:middle line:84%
ROBERT TOWNSEND: It's
only implicit in the sense

00:59:15.850 --> 00:59:22.610 align:middle line:84%
that we're looking at individual
wealths and aggregating it up.

00:59:22.610 --> 00:59:25.480 align:middle line:84%
So I agree, it's
probably not obvious,

00:59:25.480 --> 00:59:29.270 align:middle line:84%
but there are just
two representations,

00:59:29.270 --> 00:59:31.220 align:middle line:84%
one in this space
of indirect utility

00:59:31.220 --> 00:59:34.760 align:middle line:84%
functions with the
parameters p and w,

00:59:34.760 --> 00:59:40.010 align:middle line:84%
and the other and the actual
underlying allocations.

00:59:40.010 --> 00:59:44.360 align:middle line:84%
Another way to put that is
that if we-- where is it?

00:59:44.360 --> 00:59:45.680 align:middle line:90%
If we went with--

00:59:45.680 --> 00:59:46.700 align:middle line:90%
can't find it.

00:59:46.700 --> 00:59:51.220 align:middle line:90%


00:59:51.220 --> 00:59:52.150 align:middle line:90%
Yeah.

00:59:52.150 --> 00:59:56.930 align:middle line:84%
Take, as an example,
this utility function

00:59:56.930 --> 01:00:04.140 align:middle line:84%
and the associated indirect
utilities, these guys.

01:00:04.140 --> 01:00:05.512 align:middle line:90%
You could go back and forth.

01:00:05.512 --> 01:00:07.470 align:middle line:84%
You could do it one way
or do it the other way.

01:00:07.470 --> 01:00:10.515 align:middle line:84%
You're going to get
the same answer.

01:00:10.515 --> 01:00:11.990 align:middle line:90%
AUDIENCE: Oh, I get it.

01:00:11.990 --> 01:00:14.400 align:middle line:90%
ROBERT TOWNSEND: OK.

01:00:14.400 --> 01:00:15.570 align:middle line:90%
OK.

01:00:15.570 --> 01:00:20.300 align:middle line:84%
So that's Gorman
aggregation, with a lot

01:00:20.300 --> 01:00:21.590 align:middle line:90%
of the pieces coming together.

01:00:21.590 --> 01:00:25.010 align:middle line:84%
Next time, we're going to go
back in the other direction.

01:00:25.010 --> 01:00:28.910 align:middle line:84%
We're going to ask, if we
don't do anything special

01:00:28.910 --> 01:00:32.840 align:middle line:84%
like this parametrically,
does economic theory

01:00:32.840 --> 01:00:35.670 align:middle line:84%
put any restrictions
on data at all?

01:00:35.670 --> 01:00:38.570 align:middle line:84%
And the answer is
going to be yes,

01:00:38.570 --> 01:00:43.200 align:middle line:84%
so we'll talk about
theory that can

01:00:43.200 --> 01:00:47.660 align:middle line:84%
be rejected in the data,
which is a good thing.

01:00:47.660 --> 01:00:50.490 align:middle line:90%
Otherwise, there's no content.

01:00:50.490 --> 01:00:53.120 align:middle line:90%
So that's all for today.

01:00:53.120 --> 01:00:55.330 align:middle line:90%
Thank you for coming.

01:00:55.330 --> 01:01:01.369 align:middle line:90%