WEBVTT

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[SQUEAKING]

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[RUSTLING]

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[CLICKING]

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CASEY RODRIGUEZ: So let's
continue our discussion

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of sequences of functions.

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So we had two different
notions of convergence

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of sequences of functions.

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So the first notion was
pointwise convergence.

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So we have a sequence
of functions,

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f n from some set S to R,
another function, fixed

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function f from S
to R. And then we

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say f n converges to f
pointwise if for every x in S,

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the sequence of real
numbers converges to f of x.

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So if for all x and
S, the limit as n

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goes to infinity of f
n of x equals f of x.

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So I take an x out of
S, stick it into f n.

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So now I get a sequence
of real numbers.

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And I should get f of x
as n goes to infinity.

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And then we introduced
the stronger notion

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of convergence of functions,
which was the following--

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so we have a sequence going from
S to R, function from S to R,

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then we said f n converges to
f uniformly on S if somehow,

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across the entire set,
f n gets close to f.

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So here, this statement says if
for each fixed x, eventually,

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f n of x-- so f n
evaluated at that point--

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is close to f of x, f
evaluated at that point.

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But uniform convergence
says f n is close to f

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across the entire set.

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So if for all epsilon positive,
there exists natural number

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M so that for all n bigger than
or equal to M, for all x in S,

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f n of x minus f of x
is less than epsilon.

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Now, if you write out what this
means in terms of epsilon M--

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remember, this is a limit, so
this is a limit of sequences,

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so this means something in
terms of epsilons and M's--

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this would say for all x in
S, for all epsilon positive,

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there exists an M, so on.

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So the x appears at the
front of this definition,

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while here for
uniform convergence,

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it appears at the end.

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That is not just a kind
of meaningless difference

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in the way you write
the definition,

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meaning this is a stronger
statement than if the x is

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appearing here.

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So what am I going on about?

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So first off, we
proved last time

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that if I have a
sequence of functions,

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again from some subset S to R,
converging to f uniformly, then

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this implies f n
convergence to f pointwise.

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But now, what I'm
going to prove is

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that in fact,
uniform convergence

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is something stronger than
pointwise convergence.

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In other words, this
is a one-way street.

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Pointwise convergence does
not imply uniform convergence.

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And we were just going to look
at a very specific example,

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which I was going to
state as a theorem, which

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is the following--

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let f n of x be x to the n.

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And now we're looking on
the unit interval, 0, 1.

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And let f the function that
is 0 if x is in 0, 1, 1

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if x equals 1.

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So first off, let
me from last time--

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or you can even just check by
looking at the form of f n--

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that f n converges
to f pointwise.

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If I take x in this interval
here, so not equal to 1,

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then x is strictly less than 1.

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And if I raise it to a
high enough power over

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and over again, that's
converging to 0.

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So it converges to f of x, 0.

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Now at 1, I just get 1, and
that clearly converges to 1.

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So f n converges to f pointwise.

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And so the claim is that
for all b between 0 and 1,

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f n converges to f.

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And I guess I could include 0.

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That would just be
looking at one point

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and not very interesting, but
f n converges to f uniformly.

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And the second is f n does
not converge to f uniformly

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on the whole interval, however.

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So maybe it's best to
again draw this picture

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that you're supposed
to think about when it

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comes to uniform convergence.

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So we have the
limiting function, f.

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And then we draw a little
epsilon-sized collar

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around the function f.

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And then uniform convergence--

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so this is f--

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uniform convergence says that
as long as I go far enough out,

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the graph of f n should be
within this little epsilon

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collar, so that f n is
getting close to f uniformly

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across the entire set.

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So number 2 will
give us a chance

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to negate this definition of
uniform convergence, which like

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I said, you should always--

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so we're actually
doing two things here.

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We're giving an example
of uniform convergence,

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and also a sequence of functions
which does not converge

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uniformly to this function.

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So we're doing both an
example and non-example,

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which is the best thing to
do for a new definition.

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So for the proof of 1, let's
prove uniform convergence.

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So let b be in 0, 1.

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Then the limit as n goes
to infinity of b to the n

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is 0, which implies--

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so now I'm getting
ahead of myself.

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Don't write that yet.

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So now we want to prove uniform
convergence of f n to f on--

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I didn't finish this statement,
f n to f uniformly on b.

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So I have uniform convergence
on any smaller interval

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other than 0, 1.

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Sorry about that if that
looked a little weird.

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So then b n converges to
0 as n goes to infinity.

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And now we want to prove that
f n converges to f uniformly

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on this interval 0, b.

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So let epsilon be positive.

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We now have to find an M
so that f n is close to 0

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because f is 0 on
such an interval.

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Now, since b to the
n converges to 0,

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there exists natural
number M such

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that for all n bigger than
or equal to M, b to the n

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is less than epsilon.

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Then for all n bigger than
or equal to M, we get--

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and also for all x--

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0, b, we get that f
n of x minus f of x--

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b is less than 1, so when I
stick it into f, I just get 0.

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This is equal to
x to the n minus 0

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in absolute value
is just x to the n

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because we're looking
at non-negative x.

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And now x is in
this interval 0, b,

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so it's less than or equal to b.

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So x to the n is
going to be less than

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or equal to b to the n, and
this is less than epsilon.

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So just as when we looked
at uniform continuity

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of a function, it was a
statement like, for all epsilon

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there exists a delta which
just depends on, basically,

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the epsilon and the function.

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Now for uniform convergence,
it looks kind of like pointwise

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convergence, except
now for every epsilon

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you can find an M which does
not depend on the point x.

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So for every epsilon,
you can find an M

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depending only on epsilon, and
maybe the function little f.

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But that doesn't depend on x.

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This n here that I
chose, M, depended only

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on b, not the point x, which I
have to stick into this here.

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So now, let's prove number 2.

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So first off, let's negate
the definition so that we

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know what we're talking about.

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So f n does not converge
to f uniformly on a set S

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if there exists a bad--
so every "for all"

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becomes a "there exists.

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So if there exists some bad
epsilon 0 positive so that

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for all M, a natural number,
there exists n bigger than

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or equal to M, and
there exists an x in S

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so that f n of x minus f of x is
bigger than or equal to epsilon

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0.

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So this is the negation.

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But why should we not be
surprised that f n does not

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converge to f uniformly on 0,
1, if you believe this picture?

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So let's look at
what's going on here.

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So let me draw,
now, the graph of f.

00:13:37.445 --> 00:13:41.340 align:middle line:90%


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And let's say I take
epsilon to be 1/4, say.

00:13:46.470 --> 00:14:04.690 align:middle line:90%


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Now this is what my little
epsilon neighborhood of f

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looks like or epsilon tube, or
for epsilon equals 1/4, say.

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It's a tube around
0 up to x equals 1,

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and then it's a
little area around 1.

00:14:27.220 --> 00:14:31.150 align:middle line:84%
And now if I were to have
uniform convergence, then as

00:14:31.150 --> 00:14:37.690 align:middle line:84%
long as n is very large, f
n has to be within this area

00:14:37.690 --> 00:14:41.180 align:middle line:90%
that I have here.

00:14:41.180 --> 00:14:43.300 align:middle line:90%
So in fact, let me shade it in.

00:14:43.300 --> 00:14:48.120 align:middle line:90%


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So for f n large, it has
to be within this region

00:14:52.050 --> 00:14:55.310 align:middle line:90%
that I'm coloring in.

00:14:55.310 --> 00:14:59.470 align:middle line:84%
But now, what do we
know about x to the n?

00:14:59.470 --> 00:15:02.560 align:middle line:84%
Well, it starts at
0, and ends at 1,

00:15:02.560 --> 00:15:08.190 align:middle line:84%
and looks something like
that, which means here,

00:15:08.190 --> 00:15:16.040 align:middle line:84%
always, it leaves this epsilon
tube around f, this epsilon

00:15:16.040 --> 00:15:16.895 align:middle line:90%
collar, I guess.

00:15:16.895 --> 00:15:22.015 align:middle line:90%


00:15:22.015 --> 00:15:24.600 align:middle line:84%
f n leaves the
shaded area, which

00:15:24.600 --> 00:15:28.410 align:middle line:90%
is where it's supposed to stay.

00:15:28.410 --> 00:15:34.420 align:middle line:84%
So I hope this intuitive
explanation is clear,

00:15:34.420 --> 00:15:39.905 align:middle line:84%
and why it shouldn't be too
big of a surprise that f

00:15:39.905 --> 00:15:42.350 align:middle line:84%
n does not converge to
f uniformly on 0, 1.

00:15:42.350 --> 00:15:44.330 align:middle line:84%
We'll see another
reason in a little bit

00:15:44.330 --> 00:15:47.150 align:middle line:84%
why it's impossible
for f n to converge

00:15:47.150 --> 00:15:49.710 align:middle line:84%
to f uniformly when we
talk about the interchange

00:15:49.710 --> 00:15:50.210 align:middle line:90%
of limits.

00:15:50.210 --> 00:15:53.150 align:middle line:84%
But just using
the definition, we

00:15:53.150 --> 00:15:57.500 align:middle line:84%
can prove that f n does not
converge to f uniformly.

00:15:57.500 --> 00:16:03.770 align:middle line:84%
So the negation is that there
exists a bad epsilon 0 so

00:16:03.770 --> 00:16:05.510 align:middle line:90%
that we have all of this.

00:16:05.510 --> 00:16:10.750 align:middle line:84%
So the point is
to choose epsilon

00:16:10.750 --> 00:16:17.040 align:middle line:84%
so that this never
intersects with this epsilon

00:16:17.040 --> 00:16:19.800 align:middle line:84%
neighborhood of the
function down here,

00:16:19.800 --> 00:16:21.900 align:middle line:84%
never intersects
with this epsilon

00:16:21.900 --> 00:16:26.100 align:middle line:84%
neighborhood of just the
point x equals 1, y equals 1.

00:16:26.100 --> 00:16:34.270 align:middle line:84%
So let's choose
epsilon 0 to be 1/4.

00:16:34.270 --> 00:16:42.180 align:middle line:90%


00:16:42.180 --> 00:16:44.850 align:middle line:84%
So now we have to prove for
all n, there exists an n.

00:16:44.850 --> 00:16:48.505 align:middle line:90%
So let M be a natural number.

00:16:48.505 --> 00:16:53.050 align:middle line:90%


00:16:53.050 --> 00:17:07.619 align:middle line:84%
Choose n to be M. And choose
x to be, let's say, 1 over 4

00:17:07.619 --> 00:17:14.230 align:middle line:90%
to the 1 over M.

00:17:14.230 --> 00:17:15.849 align:middle line:84%
Now, this is a
number less than 1.

00:17:15.849 --> 00:17:20.140 align:middle line:84%
So its n-th root is less
than 1 and also positive.

00:17:20.140 --> 00:17:22.700 align:middle line:90%


00:17:22.700 --> 00:17:34.170 align:middle line:84%
Then this f of x
equals 0, and f sub M

00:17:34.170 --> 00:17:38.280 align:middle line:84%
of this x, which is just
1 over 4 to the 1 over M,

00:17:38.280 --> 00:17:41.850 align:middle line:84%
now raised to the
M-th power, 1 over 4,

00:17:41.850 --> 00:17:51.510 align:middle line:84%
which implies that f sub M of
x minus f of x is equal 1/4,

00:17:51.510 --> 00:17:55.430 align:middle line:90%
which equals epsilon 0.

00:17:55.430 --> 00:17:57.950 align:middle line:84%
Or I guess if you like,
you can write bigger

00:17:57.950 --> 00:17:59.360 align:middle line:90%
than or equal to epsilon 0.

00:17:59.360 --> 00:18:07.860 align:middle line:90%


00:18:07.860 --> 00:18:15.370 align:middle line:84%
So basically, if
you choose any-- so

00:18:15.370 --> 00:18:17.770 align:middle line:84%
there was nothing special
about epsilon 0 being 1/4.

00:18:17.770 --> 00:18:21.640 align:middle line:84%
If you choose anything
less than 1, that would do

00:18:21.640 --> 00:18:22.780 align:middle line:90%
You can check that.

00:18:22.780 --> 00:18:26.080 align:middle line:84%
If I chose 1/2 here, I could
then choose this point x

00:18:26.080 --> 00:18:32.050 align:middle line:84%
where f M is far away from
f of x to be 1 over 1/2,

00:18:32.050 --> 00:18:35.440 align:middle line:84%
1/2 to the 1 over
M, just as long

00:18:35.440 --> 00:18:38.620 align:middle line:84%
as I don't choose epsilon
0 to be equal to 1.

00:18:38.620 --> 00:18:55.600 align:middle line:90%


00:18:55.600 --> 00:18:59.050 align:middle line:90%
So we have that example.

00:18:59.050 --> 00:19:03.840 align:middle line:84%
And we had another
sequence of functions

00:19:03.840 --> 00:19:08.700 align:middle line:84%
we had looked at last time,
which were these functions that

00:19:08.700 --> 00:19:11.308 align:middle line:90%
look like tents.

00:19:11.308 --> 00:19:13.350 align:middle line:84%
I don't know why I'm making
this axis bigger when

00:19:13.350 --> 00:19:14.475 align:middle line:90%
it should be the other one.

00:19:14.475 --> 00:19:20.830 align:middle line:90%


00:19:20.830 --> 00:19:27.530 align:middle line:84%
So there's 1, 1 over n, 1
over 2n, then way up here 2n,

00:19:27.530 --> 00:19:30.135 align:middle line:90%
so at this point.

00:19:30.135 --> 00:19:34.000 align:middle line:90%


00:19:34.000 --> 00:19:35.380 align:middle line:90%
And then it's piecewise linear.

00:19:35.380 --> 00:19:38.730 align:middle line:84%
So then it's just a
straight line down to here.

00:19:38.730 --> 00:19:41.790 align:middle line:84%
I'm not going to write
down exactly the equation

00:19:41.790 --> 00:19:51.450 align:middle line:90%
for each piece, and then 0 to 1.

00:19:51.450 --> 00:19:54.480 align:middle line:90%
So this is f n.

00:19:54.480 --> 00:20:01.500 align:middle line:84%
And last time, we proved
that f n converges

00:20:01.500 --> 00:20:05.415 align:middle line:90%
to the function 0 pointwise.

00:20:05.415 --> 00:20:10.480 align:middle line:90%


00:20:10.480 --> 00:20:12.900 align:middle line:84%
But it does not
converge uniformly to 0.

00:20:12.900 --> 00:20:15.550 align:middle line:90%
Again, what's the point?

00:20:15.550 --> 00:20:21.930 align:middle line:84%
The point here is that if I
were to draw a little epsilon

00:20:21.930 --> 00:20:29.630 align:middle line:84%
collar around the function 0, it
would look something like this.

00:20:29.630 --> 00:20:33.460 align:middle line:84%
And f n would have to be
within this little strip

00:20:33.460 --> 00:20:35.290 align:middle line:90%
for all n sufficiently large.

00:20:35.290 --> 00:20:38.200 align:middle line:84%
But f n is getting
taller and taller,

00:20:38.200 --> 00:20:42.670 align:middle line:84%
so it always leaves any strip
that I put around the function

00:20:42.670 --> 00:20:44.230 align:middle line:90%
0.

00:20:44.230 --> 00:20:47.110 align:middle line:84%
So f n does not
convert to 0 uniformly.

00:20:47.110 --> 00:20:48.910 align:middle line:84%
We can make a proof
out of that, though.

00:20:48.910 --> 00:20:56.290 align:middle line:84%
So f n does not converge
to 0 uniformly on--

00:20:56.290 --> 00:21:02.000 align:middle line:84%
so I should always tell you
where I'm talking about.

00:21:02.000 --> 00:21:05.410 align:middle line:90%
And this should-- on 0, 1.

00:21:05.410 --> 00:21:08.750 align:middle line:90%


00:21:08.750 --> 00:21:09.650 align:middle line:90%
So why not?

00:21:09.650 --> 00:21:11.810 align:middle line:84%
Well, we can take any
epsilon 0, really.

00:21:11.810 --> 00:21:18.530 align:middle line:84%
So let's choose
epsilon 0 to be 1.

00:21:18.530 --> 00:21:21.800 align:middle line:90%


00:21:21.800 --> 00:21:23.347 align:middle line:90%
Let M be a natural number.

00:21:23.347 --> 00:21:29.100 align:middle line:90%


00:21:29.100 --> 00:21:33.450 align:middle line:84%
So we should find an n and
a x so that this inequality

00:21:33.450 --> 00:21:34.660 align:middle line:90%
is satisfied.

00:21:34.660 --> 00:21:39.720 align:middle line:84%
So let's choose n to be
M, x to be 1 over 2M,

00:21:39.720 --> 00:21:40.845 align:middle line:90%
at this point where I peak.

00:21:40.845 --> 00:21:43.970 align:middle line:90%


00:21:43.970 --> 00:21:50.820 align:middle line:90%
Then f of M of x minus f of x--

00:21:50.820 --> 00:21:53.850 align:middle line:90%
f here is just 0.

00:21:53.850 --> 00:21:57.810 align:middle line:84%
The limiting function is 0,
so let me not even put f,

00:21:57.810 --> 00:22:00.370 align:middle line:90%
let me put this 0.

00:22:00.370 --> 00:22:07.665 align:middle line:84%
This equals f M of 1
over 2M, which equals 2M.

00:22:07.665 --> 00:22:09.040 align:middle line:84%
And this is
certainly bigger than

00:22:09.040 --> 00:22:12.745 align:middle line:84%
or equal to 1,
which is epsilon 0.

00:22:12.745 --> 00:22:21.770 align:middle line:90%


00:22:21.770 --> 00:22:31.310 align:middle line:84%
Now in a little bit, I'll give
you a whole host of examples--

00:22:31.310 --> 00:22:33.830 align:middle line:84%
it seems like I've only given
you maybe one example up

00:22:33.830 --> 00:22:34.910 align:middle line:90%
to this point--

00:22:34.910 --> 00:22:38.330 align:middle line:84%
of functions which converge
uniformly to something.

00:22:38.330 --> 00:22:44.870 align:middle line:84%
But in a minute, I'll give
you a very useful test

00:22:44.870 --> 00:22:48.800 align:middle line:84%
to decide when a series
involving functions

00:22:48.800 --> 00:22:50.120 align:middle line:90%
converges uniformly.

00:22:50.120 --> 00:22:56.880 align:middle line:90%


00:22:56.880 --> 00:23:01.860 align:middle line:84%
But before we get to that, let's
revisit these three questions

00:23:01.860 --> 00:23:04.800 align:middle line:84%
that we asked in
the last lecture

00:23:04.800 --> 00:23:07.440 align:middle line:84%
in the context of
power series, but now

00:23:07.440 --> 00:23:11.790 align:middle line:84%
in this more general setting
of convergence of functions.

00:23:11.790 --> 00:23:17.475 align:middle line:84%
So now what I'm talking
about-- and this is really--

00:23:17.475 --> 00:23:23.960 align:middle line:90%


00:23:23.960 --> 00:23:29.610 align:middle line:84%
although what I'm about to
say may sound a bit alarming,

00:23:29.610 --> 00:23:32.490 align:middle line:84%
that we're now in essentially
the last week of the class

00:23:32.490 --> 00:23:40.760 align:middle line:84%
and we're really getting to the
first real part of analysis.

00:23:40.760 --> 00:23:46.290 align:middle line:84%
So I was talking with a
professor from Duke one time,

00:23:46.290 --> 00:23:50.997 align:middle line:84%
and he made this funny
observation that somehow

00:23:50.997 --> 00:23:52.830 align:middle line:84%
in math-- and I think
this is not just math,

00:23:52.830 --> 00:23:58.390 align:middle line:84%
but this is a lot of
science-based classes--

00:23:58.390 --> 00:24:02.530 align:middle line:84%
are taught, if you
were to translate it

00:24:02.530 --> 00:24:06.790 align:middle line:84%
into studying a book, it's
like you spend a year studying

00:24:06.790 --> 00:24:11.110 align:middle line:84%
introductions to a
book, and then you

00:24:11.110 --> 00:24:13.630 align:middle line:84%
spend a year studying
middle parts of books,

00:24:13.630 --> 00:24:16.810 align:middle line:84%
and then you spend
another year studying

00:24:16.810 --> 00:24:18.550 align:middle line:90%
the last parts of books.

00:24:18.550 --> 00:24:21.550 align:middle line:84%
So now here, we're
starting to get

00:24:21.550 --> 00:24:25.547 align:middle line:84%
into the middle part of the book
of analysis, not the textbook.

00:24:25.547 --> 00:24:27.130 align:middle line:84%
We're at the end of
that, but at least

00:24:27.130 --> 00:24:29.162 align:middle line:84%
in the grand scheme
of things, which

00:24:29.162 --> 00:24:30.370 align:middle line:90%
is the interchange of limits.

00:24:30.370 --> 00:24:38.650 align:middle line:84%
You have two limiting processes
that you want to interchange.

00:24:38.650 --> 00:24:44.650 align:middle line:84%
In analysis, first God created
the limit, and then man asked,

00:24:44.650 --> 00:24:46.180 align:middle line:90%
can we interchange limits?

00:24:46.180 --> 00:24:48.870 align:middle line:90%


00:24:48.870 --> 00:24:50.650 align:middle line:90%
And so what do I mean by that?

00:24:50.650 --> 00:24:56.830 align:middle line:84%
This is not always
a thing you can do.

00:24:56.830 --> 00:25:01.510 align:middle line:84%
And this is at the
very heart of analysis

00:25:01.510 --> 00:25:03.190 align:middle line:84%
is when can we
interchange limits.

00:25:03.190 --> 00:25:05.990 align:middle line:84%
So let me give you
the simplest example.

00:25:05.990 --> 00:25:15.340 align:middle line:84%
Let's say we have
the following limit--

00:25:15.340 --> 00:25:18.070 align:middle line:84%
so I take the limit as k
goes to infinity of the limit

00:25:18.070 --> 00:25:24.550 align:middle line:84%
as n goes to infinity of
n over k, n over k plus 1.

00:25:24.550 --> 00:25:28.270 align:middle line:84%
So that's just a sequence
depending on n and k.

00:25:28.270 --> 00:25:31.900 align:middle line:84%
Now, as n goes to
infinity, what do I get?

00:25:31.900 --> 00:25:35.290 align:middle line:90%
This is just equal to--

00:25:35.290 --> 00:25:39.700 align:middle line:84%
I can multiply the bottom
by k to get rid of this one.

00:25:39.700 --> 00:25:41.830 align:middle line:84%
So then I just get
n over n plus k.

00:25:41.830 --> 00:25:44.150 align:middle line:90%
And remember, k is fixed.

00:25:44.150 --> 00:25:46.160 align:middle line:84%
And then I take the limit
as n goes to infinity.

00:25:46.160 --> 00:25:46.990 align:middle line:90%
So I get 1.

00:25:46.990 --> 00:25:50.880 align:middle line:90%


00:25:50.880 --> 00:25:52.470 align:middle line:84%
So I'm taking the
limit as k goes

00:25:52.470 --> 00:25:54.690 align:middle line:90%
to infinity of this expression.

00:25:54.690 --> 00:25:57.850 align:middle line:84%
Now for each k, when I take the
limit as n goes to infinity,

00:25:57.850 --> 00:26:00.000 align:middle line:90%
I get 1.

00:26:00.000 --> 00:26:01.680 align:middle line:90%
So I get 1 there.

00:26:01.680 --> 00:26:04.920 align:middle line:84%
Now, what happens if I
interchange the limit,

00:26:04.920 --> 00:26:09.810 align:middle line:84%
and now look at the limit as n
goes to infinity of the limit

00:26:09.810 --> 00:26:18.990 align:middle line:84%
as k goes to infinity of
n over k, n over k plus 1?

00:26:18.990 --> 00:26:23.880 align:middle line:84%
Well, now as k goes to
infinity for each n--

00:26:23.880 --> 00:26:25.440 align:middle line:84%
so remember, I'm
taking the limit

00:26:25.440 --> 00:26:31.230 align:middle line:84%
as n goes to infinity of this
expression, which is formerly

00:26:31.230 --> 00:26:35.480 align:middle line:84%
this expression with the
limits interchanged--

00:26:35.480 --> 00:26:40.860 align:middle line:84%
this is equal to 0
over 0 plus 1 equals 0.

00:26:40.860 --> 00:26:44.560 align:middle line:84%
And these two do not
equal each other.

00:26:44.560 --> 00:26:47.565 align:middle line:84%
So it's not always the case
that you can interchange limits.

00:26:47.565 --> 00:26:51.430 align:middle line:90%


00:26:51.430 --> 00:26:54.460 align:middle line:90%
That's the simple fact of life.

00:26:54.460 --> 00:27:00.780 align:middle line:84%
And to be able to make
certain statements,

00:27:00.780 --> 00:27:04.800 align:middle line:84%
do certain
computations, you need

00:27:04.800 --> 00:27:06.270 align:middle line:84%
to be able to
interchange limits.

00:27:06.270 --> 00:27:11.160 align:middle line:90%
And what kind of limits?

00:27:11.160 --> 00:27:15.570 align:middle line:84%
Maybe taking an infinite
sum and integrating,

00:27:15.570 --> 00:27:19.320 align:middle line:84%
or like we stated
in the beginning,

00:27:19.320 --> 00:27:22.110 align:middle line:84%
power series are, in a
sense, a certain limit.

00:27:22.110 --> 00:27:24.660 align:middle line:84%
They're a limit of
partial sums of--

00:27:24.660 --> 00:27:27.730 align:middle line:90%
they're a limit of polynomials.

00:27:27.730 --> 00:27:30.430 align:middle line:84%
And then let's say
differentiation--

00:27:30.430 --> 00:27:31.160 align:middle line:90%
that's a limit.

00:27:31.160 --> 00:27:36.200 align:middle line:84%
So a natural question,
like we said last time is,

00:27:36.200 --> 00:27:39.650 align:middle line:84%
is the derivative of this
infinite sum the infinite sum

00:27:39.650 --> 00:27:40.400 align:middle line:90%
of the derivative?

00:27:40.400 --> 00:27:43.640 align:middle line:84%
Those are two limiting
processes which we're

00:27:43.640 --> 00:27:46.520 align:middle line:90%
asking can we interchange.

00:27:46.520 --> 00:27:50.060 align:middle line:84%
So the three questions,
again, that I

00:27:50.060 --> 00:27:52.130 align:middle line:84%
asked in terms of
power series, I'm

00:27:52.130 --> 00:27:58.430 align:middle line:84%
going to now frame again
in this general setting.

00:27:58.430 --> 00:28:14.090 align:middle line:84%
So if f n, S to R, f from S
to R, and f n converges to f--

00:28:14.090 --> 00:28:16.790 align:middle line:84%
maybe pointwise or
uniformly, so let's

00:28:16.790 --> 00:28:21.840 align:middle line:84%
leave this open ended for now
because these are the only two

00:28:21.840 --> 00:28:23.700 align:middle line:90%
notions we have of convergence--

00:28:23.700 --> 00:28:30.620 align:middle line:90%


00:28:30.620 --> 00:28:31.970 align:middle line:90%
and let me make--

00:28:31.970 --> 00:28:39.010 align:middle line:90%


00:28:39.010 --> 00:28:42.310 align:middle line:84%
so suppose f n is from
S to R, f is S to R,

00:28:42.310 --> 00:28:45.980 align:middle line:84%
and f n converges to f
pointwise or uniformly,

00:28:45.980 --> 00:28:48.250 align:middle line:84%
and this sentence is
not written very well,

00:28:48.250 --> 00:29:02.910 align:middle line:84%
and f n is continuous for
all n, then is f continuous?

00:29:02.910 --> 00:29:07.020 align:middle line:84%
So suppose we have a sequence of
continuous functions converging

00:29:07.020 --> 00:29:12.120 align:middle line:84%
to another function f, either
pointwise or uniformly.

00:29:12.120 --> 00:29:13.632 align:middle line:84%
Is the limiting
function continuous?

00:29:13.632 --> 00:29:15.090 align:middle line:84%
And I'll explain
it in a minute why

00:29:15.090 --> 00:29:17.040 align:middle line:84%
this is a limiting,
kind of asking

00:29:17.040 --> 00:29:19.080 align:middle line:90%
can we interchange two limits.

00:29:19.080 --> 00:29:30.330 align:middle line:84%
Second question is
suppose f n from a, b to R

00:29:30.330 --> 00:29:46.860 align:middle line:84%
is differentiable for
all n, f from a, b to R,

00:29:46.860 --> 00:29:51.600 align:middle line:84%
and we have that f
n converges to f--

00:29:51.600 --> 00:29:53.670 align:middle line:84%
either pointwise
or uniform, we're

00:29:53.670 --> 00:29:56.950 align:middle line:84%
leaving this open
ended for now--

00:29:56.950 --> 00:30:00.460 align:middle line:84%
and the derivatives also
converge, say to some function

00:30:00.460 --> 00:30:14.010 align:middle line:90%
g, then is f differentiable?

00:30:14.010 --> 00:30:19.910 align:middle line:84%
And is the limit
of the derivatives

00:30:19.910 --> 00:30:22.040 align:middle line:84%
equal to the derivative
of the limit?

00:30:22.040 --> 00:30:30.870 align:middle line:90%


00:30:30.870 --> 00:30:36.300 align:middle line:84%
And then the last question-- so
this is the third main limiting

00:30:36.300 --> 00:30:39.150 align:middle line:84%
process we've seen in this
class, which is integration--

00:30:39.150 --> 00:30:44.540 align:middle line:90%


00:30:44.540 --> 00:30:53.110 align:middle line:84%
suppose f n is a sequence
of continuous functions,

00:30:53.110 --> 00:31:03.900 align:middle line:84%
f is a continuous
function, and f n converges

00:31:03.900 --> 00:31:07.350 align:middle line:84%
to f-- again, maybe either
pointwise or uniformly,

00:31:07.350 --> 00:31:09.240 align:middle line:84%
we're leaving this
open ended for now.

00:31:09.240 --> 00:31:12.950 align:middle line:90%


00:31:12.950 --> 00:31:19.730 align:middle line:84%
Does limit of the
integrals equal

00:31:19.730 --> 00:31:21.110 align:middle line:90%
the integral of the limit?

00:31:21.110 --> 00:31:33.190 align:middle line:90%


00:31:33.190 --> 00:31:35.990 align:middle line:90%
Now again, I want you to--

00:31:35.990 --> 00:31:40.090 align:middle line:84%
it's really, I guess,
more clear here,

00:31:40.090 --> 00:31:43.040 align:middle line:84%
the fact that we're asking
about interchanging two limits.

00:31:43.040 --> 00:31:46.180 align:middle line:84%
So here, we have
this integration

00:31:46.180 --> 00:31:49.600 align:middle line:84%
is just a symbol for taking
this limiting process,

00:31:49.600 --> 00:31:52.210 align:middle line:84%
where you take a sequence
of partitions of a, b

00:31:52.210 --> 00:31:55.810 align:middle line:84%
with norm converging to 0, then
the integral from a to b of f

00:31:55.810 --> 00:32:01.120 align:middle line:84%
n-- this is defined to be
this limit of Riemann sums.

00:32:01.120 --> 00:32:03.490 align:middle line:84%
So this is a limiting
process here,

00:32:03.490 --> 00:32:06.950 align:middle line:84%
although I'm writing it
with this simple notation.

00:32:06.950 --> 00:32:09.130 align:middle line:84%
So I'm asking it,
can I take this limit

00:32:09.130 --> 00:32:10.840 align:middle line:90%
as n goes to infinity?

00:32:10.840 --> 00:32:13.510 align:middle line:84%
And can I interchange it
with this limiting process?

00:32:13.510 --> 00:32:19.800 align:middle line:84%
Now, for continuity, it's
maybe a little more hidden

00:32:19.800 --> 00:32:21.540 align:middle line:84%
on what's the
interchange of limits

00:32:21.540 --> 00:32:23.070 align:middle line:90%
that you're really looking at.

00:32:23.070 --> 00:32:26.940 align:middle line:90%
So it looks more like this.

00:32:26.940 --> 00:32:44.164 align:middle line:84%
So remember, for 1, we're
asking suppose x is in set S,

00:32:44.164 --> 00:32:59.510 align:middle line:84%
x n is a sequence converging
to x, then basically,

00:32:59.510 --> 00:33:00.280 align:middle line:90%
can we do this?

00:33:00.280 --> 00:33:05.910 align:middle line:90%


00:33:05.910 --> 00:33:10.800 align:middle line:84%
Now I would like to show that
f of x is equal to the limit

00:33:10.800 --> 00:33:14.070 align:middle line:84%
as n goes to infinity
of f of x sub n.

00:33:14.070 --> 00:33:22.000 align:middle line:84%
So let me actually make this
an m, and use two different--

00:33:22.000 --> 00:33:22.960 align:middle line:90%
let's use a k.

00:33:22.960 --> 00:33:26.620 align:middle line:90%


00:33:26.620 --> 00:33:31.390 align:middle line:84%
So if I compute limit as k goes
to infinity of f of x sub k,

00:33:31.390 --> 00:33:33.190 align:middle line:84%
would like to show
that equals f of x

00:33:33.190 --> 00:33:36.220 align:middle line:84%
if I'm trying to show that
the limit is continuous,

00:33:36.220 --> 00:33:40.120 align:middle line:84%
assuming the functions that are
converging to f are continuous.

00:33:40.120 --> 00:33:42.110 align:middle line:84%
If I look at the limit
as k goes to infinity,

00:33:42.110 --> 00:33:44.110 align:middle line:84%
then I'm tempted to do
the following-- that this

00:33:44.110 --> 00:33:51.700 align:middle line:84%
is equal to the limit as k goes
to infinity of the limit as n

00:33:51.700 --> 00:33:55.330 align:middle line:84%
goes to infinity of
f n of x, assuming

00:33:55.330 --> 00:34:00.520 align:middle line:84%
either pointwise convergence
or uniform convergence, x k.

00:34:00.520 --> 00:34:03.050 align:middle line:90%


00:34:03.050 --> 00:34:08.980 align:middle line:84%
And now, if I'm just being
a little bit careless,

00:34:08.980 --> 00:34:13.440 align:middle line:84%
I interchange limits and
write this as the limit

00:34:13.440 --> 00:34:18.230 align:middle line:84%
as n goes to infinity of the
limit as k goes to infinity.

00:34:18.230 --> 00:34:22.635 align:middle line:84%
So here is where I'm asking,
can I interchange limits?

00:34:22.635 --> 00:34:25.330 align:middle line:90%


00:34:25.330 --> 00:34:27.010 align:middle line:84%
Again, this is not
a proof, this is

00:34:27.010 --> 00:34:29.980 align:middle line:84%
discussion on what is
the interchange of limits

00:34:29.980 --> 00:34:32.139 align:middle line:84%
that I'm looking at
for question number 1.

00:34:32.139 --> 00:34:34.540 align:middle line:90%
Question number 3 is more clear.

00:34:34.540 --> 00:34:37.179 align:middle line:84%
And then for this,
once I've done this,

00:34:37.179 --> 00:34:40.030 align:middle line:84%
differentiability will
be a little bit clearer

00:34:40.030 --> 00:34:46.420 align:middle line:84%
on what is the interchange
of limits I'm looking at.

00:34:46.420 --> 00:34:49.772 align:middle line:84%
So let's say I was just
doing whatever I like

00:34:49.772 --> 00:34:50.730 align:middle line:90%
and going through this.

00:34:50.730 --> 00:34:53.190 align:middle line:84%
Then I would interchange
these limits.

00:34:53.190 --> 00:34:57.080 align:middle line:90%


00:34:57.080 --> 00:35:00.680 align:middle line:84%
And since each of these
f n's are continuous,

00:35:00.680 --> 00:35:04.310 align:middle line:84%
then the limit as k goes to
infinity of f n of x sub k,

00:35:04.310 --> 00:35:09.970 align:middle line:84%
and x sub k converges to x,
this just gives me f n of x.

00:35:09.970 --> 00:35:14.680 align:middle line:84%
And so since f n, again,
converges to f in some sense,

00:35:14.680 --> 00:35:16.730 align:middle line:90%
this should give me f of x.

00:35:16.730 --> 00:35:21.790 align:middle line:84%
So what I'm asking
is, was all this OK?

00:35:21.790 --> 00:35:24.550 align:middle line:84%
Because at some point, at
this point in particular,

00:35:24.550 --> 00:35:28.098 align:middle line:90%
I had to interchange a limit.

00:35:28.098 --> 00:35:30.140 align:middle line:84%
And we've just seen that
we can't always do that.

00:35:30.140 --> 00:35:34.090 align:middle line:84%
We can't always interchange
limits and get the same thing.

00:35:34.090 --> 00:35:36.162 align:middle line:90%
Here, we got 1.

00:35:36.162 --> 00:35:37.870 align:middle line:84%
When we interchanged
the limit, we got 0.

00:35:37.870 --> 00:35:41.500 align:middle line:84%
So it's not always the case
that I can interchange limits.

00:35:41.500 --> 00:35:46.180 align:middle line:84%
This equality between this
limit and the interchanged limit

00:35:46.180 --> 00:35:47.740 align:middle line:90%
is the big question mark.

00:35:47.740 --> 00:35:52.000 align:middle line:84%
So that's the whole basis
for question number 1.

00:35:52.000 --> 00:35:55.350 align:middle line:90%


00:35:55.350 --> 00:36:02.530 align:middle line:84%
So I hope that discussion
was clear enough.

00:36:02.530 --> 00:36:05.140 align:middle line:84%
Now, the answer to
these three questions

00:36:05.140 --> 00:36:11.770 align:middle line:84%
is, in fact, yes, but only
for uniform convergence.

00:36:11.770 --> 00:36:15.890 align:middle line:90%


00:36:15.890 --> 00:36:41.080 align:middle line:84%
If the convergence-- and this
is the mode of convergence

00:36:41.080 --> 00:36:43.690 align:middle line:84%
we must have so that the
answer to all of these three

00:36:43.690 --> 00:36:49.710 align:middle line:84%
questions, which we'll state and
prove as theorems, is correct.

00:36:49.710 --> 00:36:55.680 align:middle line:84%
Now the natural
question is, what

00:36:55.680 --> 00:36:57.750 align:middle line:90%
if we have a weaker hypothesis?

00:36:57.750 --> 00:37:01.560 align:middle line:84%
Namely, what if we only
assume pointwise convergence?

00:37:01.560 --> 00:37:05.610 align:middle line:84%
Is the answer to any
of these questions yes?

00:37:05.610 --> 00:37:08.520 align:middle line:90%
And, well, no.

00:37:08.520 --> 00:37:10.800 align:middle line:84%
So the answer to all
three of these questions

00:37:10.800 --> 00:37:13.530 align:middle line:84%
is no if we only assume
pointwise convergence.

00:37:13.530 --> 00:37:36.170 align:middle line:90%


00:37:36.170 --> 00:37:38.930 align:middle line:84%
So let's go through
an example showing

00:37:38.930 --> 00:37:40.580 align:middle line:84%
that each of these
three questions

00:37:40.580 --> 00:37:45.700 align:middle line:84%
is no if we only assume
pointwise convergence.

00:37:45.700 --> 00:37:48.990 align:middle line:84%
So let's look at an
example showing 1

00:37:48.990 --> 00:37:52.863 align:middle line:84%
is no if we only assume
pointwise convergence.

00:37:52.863 --> 00:37:54.780 align:middle line:84%
And we basically already
have it on the board.

00:37:54.780 --> 00:37:58.970 align:middle line:90%


00:37:58.970 --> 00:38:12.260 align:middle line:84%
Take f n of x to be x to
the n on 0, 1, x is in--

00:38:12.260 --> 00:38:18.290 align:middle line:90%


00:38:18.290 --> 00:38:25.650 align:middle line:84%
then each of these
functions, and for all n,

00:38:25.650 --> 00:38:31.650 align:middle line:84%
f n is a continuous
function on 0, 1,

00:38:31.650 --> 00:38:36.915 align:middle line:90%
f n converges to f pointwise.

00:38:36.915 --> 00:38:40.670 align:middle line:90%


00:38:40.670 --> 00:38:48.010 align:middle line:84%
But f itself is not
continuous function.

00:38:48.010 --> 00:38:50.590 align:middle line:84%
So this provides an example
of a sequence of functions

00:38:50.590 --> 00:38:53.470 align:middle line:84%
which converges pointwise
to a function which

00:38:53.470 --> 00:38:55.330 align:middle line:90%
is not continuous.

00:38:55.330 --> 00:38:57.190 align:middle line:84%
Again, what I was saying
there in the answer

00:38:57.190 --> 00:39:00.100 align:middle line:84%
is that if I have a
sequence of functions which

00:39:00.100 --> 00:39:02.200 align:middle line:84%
converges uniformly
to a function f,

00:39:02.200 --> 00:39:04.780 align:middle line:84%
then that function
is continuous.

00:39:04.780 --> 00:39:07.870 align:middle line:84%
Here, if we only assume
pointwise convergence,

00:39:07.870 --> 00:39:10.780 align:middle line:84%
we may not get a continuous
function in the end.

00:39:10.780 --> 00:39:12.610 align:middle line:84%
And this is what
this example shows--

00:39:12.610 --> 00:39:15.160 align:middle line:90%
f n of x equals x to the n.

00:39:15.160 --> 00:39:16.930 align:middle line:84%
These are all
continuous functions.

00:39:16.930 --> 00:39:18.790 align:middle line:84%
They converge to
a function which

00:39:18.790 --> 00:39:20.800 align:middle line:90%
is not continuous pointwise.

00:39:20.800 --> 00:39:27.690 align:middle line:90%


00:39:27.690 --> 00:39:29.560 align:middle line:84%
I'll say something
else in a minute.

00:39:29.560 --> 00:39:33.000 align:middle line:90%
So let's look at example 2 now.

00:39:33.000 --> 00:39:35.730 align:middle line:84%
Basically, we take the
previous example and kind

00:39:35.730 --> 00:39:38.610 align:middle line:84%
of integrate it to get
an example of a sequence

00:39:38.610 --> 00:39:42.660 align:middle line:84%
of functions that converges,
and its derivative converges

00:39:42.660 --> 00:39:45.270 align:middle line:90%
pointwise.

00:39:45.270 --> 00:40:00.170 align:middle line:84%
2, take f n of x to be x
to the n over n on 0, 1.

00:40:00.170 --> 00:40:05.480 align:middle line:90%
Then a couple of things--

00:40:05.480 --> 00:40:06.935 align:middle line:90%
f n converges to 0.

00:40:06.935 --> 00:40:10.900 align:middle line:90%


00:40:10.900 --> 00:40:15.670 align:middle line:84%
f n prime converges
to the function

00:40:15.670 --> 00:40:18.640 align:middle line:84%
f, which is the same
function from here.

00:40:18.640 --> 00:40:28.200 align:middle line:90%


00:40:28.200 --> 00:40:29.620 align:middle line:90%
So let me actually make this g.

00:40:29.620 --> 00:40:35.380 align:middle line:90%


00:40:35.380 --> 00:40:42.530 align:middle line:84%
And these are
pointwise, so I have

00:40:42.530 --> 00:40:45.530 align:middle line:84%
a sequence of
differentiable functions

00:40:45.530 --> 00:40:47.870 align:middle line:84%
that converge
pointwise to something.

00:40:47.870 --> 00:40:49.580 align:middle line:84%
And the derivatives
also converge

00:40:49.580 --> 00:40:50.960 align:middle line:90%
pointwise to something.

00:40:50.960 --> 00:40:57.220 align:middle line:90%


00:40:57.220 --> 00:41:06.110 align:middle line:84%
Let's call f equals 0, but
g is not equal to f prime.

00:41:06.110 --> 00:41:08.600 align:middle line:84%
The derivative of f,
the constant function 0,

00:41:08.600 --> 00:41:09.550 align:middle line:90%
which is 0.

00:41:09.550 --> 00:41:11.920 align:middle line:84%
g is equal to this
function, which

00:41:11.920 --> 00:41:16.030 align:middle line:84%
is 0 if x is in 0, 1 and
1 if x is equal to 1.

00:41:16.030 --> 00:41:20.410 align:middle line:84%
So here, we see that the
derivative of the limit

00:41:20.410 --> 00:41:22.240 align:middle line:84%
is not the limit
of the derivatives,

00:41:22.240 --> 00:41:26.660 align:middle line:84%
if we only assume pointwise
convergence of the functions.

00:41:26.660 --> 00:41:29.970 align:middle line:90%


00:41:29.970 --> 00:41:33.540 align:middle line:84%
Now, the last example
showing that 3 does not

00:41:33.540 --> 00:41:36.030 align:middle line:84%
hold if we only assume
pointwise convergence

00:41:36.030 --> 00:41:37.240 align:middle line:90%
is also on the board.

00:41:37.240 --> 00:41:40.230 align:middle line:84%
It's the whole point
of this one up there.

00:41:40.230 --> 00:41:46.400 align:middle line:90%
So let's go on the next board.

00:41:46.400 --> 00:42:12.240 align:middle line:90%


00:42:12.240 --> 00:42:23.960 align:middle line:84%
So here, f n from 0 to 1 to R
is this tent function, 1 over n,

00:42:23.960 --> 00:42:26.760 align:middle line:90%
1 over 2n, 2n.

00:42:26.760 --> 00:42:31.110 align:middle line:90%


00:42:31.110 --> 00:42:33.100 align:middle line:90%
It's just piecewise linear.

00:42:33.100 --> 00:42:40.620 align:middle line:84%
So it's 0 from 1 over n
to 1, and it goes up to 1

00:42:40.620 --> 00:42:44.910 align:middle line:84%
over 2n, 2n, and then
back down to the origin.

00:42:44.910 --> 00:42:48.940 align:middle line:90%


00:42:48.940 --> 00:42:54.880 align:middle line:84%
And so we know that f n
converges to 0 pointwise.

00:42:54.880 --> 00:42:57.560 align:middle line:90%


00:42:57.560 --> 00:42:59.810 align:middle line:84%
Now, the integral
of 0 is just 0.

00:42:59.810 --> 00:43:03.770 align:middle line:84%
Let's look at the integral
of f n from 0 to 1.

00:43:03.770 --> 00:43:08.710 align:middle line:90%


00:43:08.710 --> 00:43:12.250 align:middle line:90%
The integral of 0, 1 of f n--

00:43:12.250 --> 00:43:14.080 align:middle line:84%
now if we were
all together, this

00:43:14.080 --> 00:43:22.420 align:middle line:84%
would be the point where I stop
and ask if anybody can remember

00:43:22.420 --> 00:43:25.090 align:middle line:84%
the area of a triangle,
even though we're

00:43:25.090 --> 00:43:27.460 align:middle line:90%
in this advanced analysis class.

00:43:27.460 --> 00:43:29.020 align:middle line:90%
But I don't get to ask you that.

00:43:29.020 --> 00:43:32.230 align:middle line:84%
I get to just ask myself
that and I know the answer

00:43:32.230 --> 00:43:34.180 align:middle line:84%
because I prepared and
only because of that.

00:43:34.180 --> 00:43:40.850 align:middle line:84%
This is 1/2 base
times the height.

00:43:40.850 --> 00:43:42.640 align:middle line:84%
So remember, the
integral is an area.

00:43:42.640 --> 00:43:46.120 align:middle line:90%


00:43:46.120 --> 00:43:49.300 align:middle line:84%
And I could write
down the formula

00:43:49.300 --> 00:43:53.453 align:middle line:84%
of what this function is
and actually integrate it

00:43:53.453 --> 00:43:55.370 align:middle line:84%
out using the fundamental
theorem of calculus,

00:43:55.370 --> 00:43:56.810 align:middle line:90%
but just go with me on this--

00:43:56.810 --> 00:44:00.380 align:middle line:84%
that the integral of f n is just
the area of this triangle that

00:44:00.380 --> 00:44:04.730 align:middle line:84%
has base starting at 0
and going to 1 over n,

00:44:04.730 --> 00:44:07.670 align:middle line:90%
and it peaks at 2n.

00:44:07.670 --> 00:44:13.460 align:middle line:90%
So the base is 1 over n.

00:44:13.460 --> 00:44:16.850 align:middle line:90%
The height is 2n.

00:44:16.850 --> 00:44:20.720 align:middle line:90%
So this equals 1 for all n.

00:44:20.720 --> 00:44:22.370 align:middle line:84%
See, this is why I
was making it peak.

00:44:22.370 --> 00:44:26.150 align:middle line:90%


00:44:26.150 --> 00:44:34.310 align:middle line:84%
So the integral from 0 to 1,
which is just 1 for all n,

00:44:34.310 --> 00:44:38.510 align:middle line:84%
does not converge to the
integral of the limit.

00:44:38.510 --> 00:44:45.030 align:middle line:90%


00:44:45.030 --> 00:44:48.810 align:middle line:84%
So in this case, the
limit of the integrals

00:44:48.810 --> 00:44:51.660 align:middle line:84%
is not the integral
of the limit.

00:44:51.660 --> 00:44:53.370 align:middle line:90%
And what's the reason?

00:44:53.370 --> 00:44:56.430 align:middle line:84%
Because we only have
pointwise convergence.

00:44:56.430 --> 00:44:58.890 align:middle line:84%
Like I said a minute ago, the
answer is yes to all three

00:44:58.890 --> 00:45:01.650 align:middle line:84%
of these questions if the
convergence is uniform.

00:45:01.650 --> 00:45:03.150 align:middle line:84%
And what these
three examples are

00:45:03.150 --> 00:45:04.567 align:middle line:84%
supposed to show
you is the answer

00:45:04.567 --> 00:45:08.910 align:middle line:84%
is no if I only assume pointwise
convergence, the weaker

00:45:08.910 --> 00:45:10.260 align:middle line:90%
notion of convergence.

00:45:10.260 --> 00:45:19.100 align:middle line:90%


00:45:19.100 --> 00:45:23.405 align:middle line:84%
So let's now prove
some theorems.

00:45:23.405 --> 00:45:29.300 align:middle line:90%


00:45:29.300 --> 00:45:32.180 align:middle line:84%
So this first theorem
addresses question 1.

00:45:32.180 --> 00:45:37.500 align:middle line:90%


00:45:37.500 --> 00:45:47.790 align:middle line:84%
Suppose f n from S to R, f
from S to R, f n is continuous,

00:45:47.790 --> 00:45:56.450 align:middle line:84%
meaning it's continuous at
every point in S for all n,

00:45:56.450 --> 00:46:14.850 align:middle line:84%
and f n convergence to
f uniformly on S. Then

00:46:14.850 --> 00:46:19.320 align:middle line:84%
the conclusion is
that f is continuous.

00:46:19.320 --> 00:46:29.000 align:middle line:90%


00:46:29.000 --> 00:46:34.250 align:middle line:84%
So the proof-- we've done
several proofs like this

00:46:34.250 --> 00:46:37.790 align:middle line:84%
before but for some
reason, at least I

00:46:37.790 --> 00:46:40.940 align:middle line:84%
see in textbooks for this
proof, they always refer to it

00:46:40.940 --> 00:46:43.178 align:middle line:90%
as an epsilon over 3 argument.

00:46:43.178 --> 00:46:44.720 align:middle line:84%
And then it's the
last time they call

00:46:44.720 --> 00:46:48.410 align:middle line:90%
it an epsilon over 3 argument.

00:46:48.410 --> 00:46:55.600 align:middle line:84%
So we have to show f is
continuous at every point in S.

00:46:55.600 --> 00:47:01.710 align:middle line:84%
So let c be a point in S.
Let epsilon be positive.

00:47:01.710 --> 00:47:05.370 align:middle line:84%
We have to find delta
so that for all x

00:47:05.370 --> 00:47:07.890 align:middle line:84%
minus c less than delta
in absolute value,

00:47:07.890 --> 00:47:11.835 align:middle line:84%
f of x minus f of c
is less than epsilon.

00:47:11.835 --> 00:47:13.710 align:middle line:84%
And what we're going to
do is we're basically

00:47:13.710 --> 00:47:18.490 align:middle line:84%
going to replace f by some
f m for m large enough.

00:47:18.490 --> 00:47:20.580 align:middle line:84%
And the fact that we
have uniform convergence

00:47:20.580 --> 00:47:22.600 align:middle line:90%
is what allows us to do that.

00:47:22.600 --> 00:47:25.320 align:middle line:90%
So let epsilon be positive.

00:47:25.320 --> 00:47:29.720 align:middle line:90%


00:47:29.720 --> 00:47:35.570 align:middle line:84%
Since the f n's
converge to f uniformly,

00:47:35.570 --> 00:47:38.840 align:middle line:84%
there exists a
natural number M so

00:47:38.840 --> 00:47:48.244 align:middle line:84%
that for all n bigger than or
equal to M, for all y in S,

00:47:48.244 --> 00:47:56.110 align:middle line:84%
f M of y minus f of y is
less than epsilon over 3.

00:47:56.110 --> 00:48:09.440 align:middle line:90%


00:48:09.440 --> 00:48:13.490 align:middle line:90%
Now, this f sub capital M--

00:48:13.490 --> 00:48:16.880 align:middle line:84%
I'm just going to fix
that so it should be n.

00:48:16.880 --> 00:48:19.870 align:middle line:84%
But now, this is for all n
bigger than or equal to capital

00:48:19.870 --> 00:48:24.370 align:middle line:84%
M. I really just need one, so
let's look at the f sub capital

00:48:24.370 --> 00:48:25.750 align:middle line:90%
M. That's a continuous function.

00:48:25.750 --> 00:48:29.210 align:middle line:90%


00:48:29.210 --> 00:48:38.490 align:middle line:84%
Since f sub capital
M is continuous,

00:48:38.490 --> 00:48:46.080 align:middle line:84%
there exists a delta positive
so that for all x minus, if x

00:48:46.080 --> 00:48:58.110 align:middle line:84%
is within distance
delta to c, then

00:48:58.110 --> 00:49:06.415 align:middle line:84%
I get that f sub M of x minus f
sub M of c is less than epsilon

00:49:06.415 --> 00:49:06.915 align:middle line:90%
over 3.

00:49:06.915 --> 00:49:11.690 align:middle line:90%


00:49:11.690 --> 00:49:18.200 align:middle line:84%
So then this delta
here-- so I stopped

00:49:18.200 --> 00:49:19.700 align:middle line:84%
doing something
which I was doing

00:49:19.700 --> 00:49:22.490 align:middle line:84%
in all previous lectures, when I
would say there exists delta 0.

00:49:22.490 --> 00:49:24.170 align:middle line:90%
Choose delta to be this delta 0.

00:49:24.170 --> 00:49:25.430 align:middle line:90%
There exists M0.

00:49:25.430 --> 00:49:27.110 align:middle line:90%
Choose M to be this M0.

00:49:27.110 --> 00:49:32.350 align:middle line:84%
Now I've dropped
that and stopped

00:49:32.350 --> 00:49:35.540 align:middle line:84%
doing that because it should
be clear from the context

00:49:35.540 --> 00:49:37.270 align:middle line:84%
now what I'm
choosing delta to be.

00:49:37.270 --> 00:49:43.690 align:middle line:84%
So then for all x minus
c less than delta--

00:49:43.690 --> 00:49:45.990 align:middle line:84%
so I'm saying that I'm now
choosing this delta that

00:49:45.990 --> 00:49:51.120 align:middle line:84%
came from here, which came from
f sub capital M. Capital M came

00:49:51.120 --> 00:49:55.890 align:middle line:90%
from this, what I needed here.

00:49:55.890 --> 00:49:58.410 align:middle line:90%


00:49:58.410 --> 00:50:02.780 align:middle line:84%
So now, if I look f of x minus
f of c, which I want to show

00:50:02.780 --> 00:50:07.950 align:middle line:84%
is less than epsilon,
now if I add and subtract

00:50:07.950 --> 00:50:12.120 align:middle line:84%
f sub M of x and f sub M
of c and use the triangle

00:50:12.120 --> 00:50:14.910 align:middle line:84%
inequality, this is
less than or equal to f

00:50:14.910 --> 00:50:25.740 align:middle line:84%
of x minus f sub M of x plus f
sub M of x minus f sub M of c

00:50:25.740 --> 00:50:34.540 align:middle line:90%
plus f sub M of c minus f of c.

00:50:34.540 --> 00:50:39.430 align:middle line:84%
So I just added and subtracted
f sub M of x and f of M of c,

00:50:39.430 --> 00:50:43.510 align:middle line:84%
and then used the
triangle inequality.

00:50:43.510 --> 00:50:49.230 align:middle line:84%
Now, by this estimate
here, since I'm

00:50:49.230 --> 00:50:53.250 align:middle line:84%
looking at a particular
n basically equal to M,

00:50:53.250 --> 00:50:56.340 align:middle line:84%
I have this is less
than epsilon over 3

00:50:56.340 --> 00:50:59.770 align:middle line:90%
no matter what y is in this set.

00:50:59.770 --> 00:51:02.880 align:middle line:84%
So then certainly for x, I will
have this is less than epsilon

00:51:02.880 --> 00:51:05.420 align:middle line:90%
over 3.

00:51:05.420 --> 00:51:08.240 align:middle line:84%
How I chose delta,
remember, was to guarantee

00:51:08.240 --> 00:51:11.000 align:middle line:84%
that this would be less
than epsilon over 3

00:51:11.000 --> 00:51:13.235 align:middle line:84%
as long as x minus c
is less than delta.

00:51:13.235 --> 00:51:15.602 align:middle line:90%


00:51:15.602 --> 00:51:17.310 align:middle line:84%
And then of course,
this one is less than

00:51:17.310 --> 00:51:21.840 align:middle line:84%
epsilon over 3 again because of
this uniform closeness of f M

00:51:21.840 --> 00:51:22.740 align:middle line:90%
to f.

00:51:22.740 --> 00:51:26.360 align:middle line:90%


00:51:26.360 --> 00:51:29.180 align:middle line:84%
And therefore, for
all absolute value

00:51:29.180 --> 00:51:31.250 align:middle line:84%
of x minus c less
than delta, I have

00:51:31.250 --> 00:51:36.690 align:middle line:84%
f of x minus f of c
is less than epsilon.

00:51:36.690 --> 00:51:39.200 align:middle line:90%
And that finishes the proof.

00:51:39.200 --> 00:51:42.350 align:middle line:84%
So if we have uniform
convergence, then--

00:51:42.350 --> 00:51:45.410 align:middle line:90%


00:51:45.410 --> 00:51:47.930 align:middle line:84%
a good theorem
should be able to be

00:51:47.930 --> 00:51:54.020 align:middle line:84%
stated in one sentence, or at
least some simple and easy way

00:51:54.020 --> 00:51:55.160 align:middle line:90%
to remember it.

00:51:55.160 --> 00:51:58.550 align:middle line:84%
What this says is the uniform
limit of continuous functions

00:51:58.550 --> 00:51:59.570 align:middle line:90%
is continuous.

00:51:59.570 --> 00:52:04.180 align:middle line:90%


00:52:04.180 --> 00:52:07.420 align:middle line:84%
So the uniform limit
of continuous functions

00:52:07.420 --> 00:52:08.500 align:middle line:90%
is continuous.

00:52:08.500 --> 00:52:11.550 align:middle line:90%


00:52:11.550 --> 00:52:16.560 align:middle line:84%
Next, we'll show, in a
sense, the uniform limit

00:52:16.560 --> 00:52:21.360 align:middle line:84%
of differentiable
functions is continuous.

00:52:21.360 --> 00:52:24.300 align:middle line:90%


00:52:24.300 --> 00:52:32.870 align:middle line:84%
We're going to do the
simplest statement of that,

00:52:32.870 --> 00:52:35.870 align:middle line:84%
although one can make
stronger statements.

00:52:35.870 --> 00:52:38.550 align:middle line:90%


00:52:38.550 --> 00:52:44.340 align:middle line:84%
But in practice, this one
suffices, really, at least

00:52:44.340 --> 00:52:46.155 align:middle line:90%
where it pops up later in life.

00:52:46.155 --> 00:52:50.050 align:middle line:90%


00:52:50.050 --> 00:52:56.355 align:middle line:84%
But before I get to that
one, let's do 3, which is--

00:52:56.355 --> 00:52:59.270 align:middle line:90%


00:52:59.270 --> 00:53:01.520 align:middle line:84%
let's see, what would be the
short way of saying that?

00:53:01.520 --> 00:53:06.620 align:middle line:90%


00:53:06.620 --> 00:53:09.130 align:middle line:84%
The integral of
the uniform limit

00:53:09.130 --> 00:53:12.340 align:middle line:84%
is the limit of the integrals,
something like that.

00:53:12.340 --> 00:53:14.500 align:middle line:84%
That would be the
short and sweet way

00:53:14.500 --> 00:53:18.970 align:middle line:84%
of stating the following
theorem, which is--

00:53:18.970 --> 00:53:20.440 align:middle line:90%
so this is an answer to 3.

00:53:20.440 --> 00:53:24.480 align:middle line:84%
So we skipped over
2 for a minute.

00:53:24.480 --> 00:53:29.800 align:middle line:84%
Suppose f n is a sequence of
continuous functions on a, b,

00:53:29.800 --> 00:53:33.100 align:middle line:84%
because we're going to be
talking about integrals

00:53:33.100 --> 00:53:34.780 align:middle line:84%
and we've only spoken
about integrals

00:53:34.780 --> 00:53:37.620 align:middle line:90%
for continuous functions--

00:53:37.620 --> 00:53:48.000 align:middle line:84%
suppose f n is a continuous
function on a, b, f from a, b

00:53:48.000 --> 00:53:58.840 align:middle line:84%
to R, and f n converges
to F uniformly.

00:53:58.840 --> 00:54:05.740 align:middle line:84%
Note that by what we just
proven the previous theorem,

00:54:05.740 --> 00:54:10.390 align:middle line:84%
this automatically
guarantees that f

00:54:10.390 --> 00:54:11.600 align:middle line:90%
is a continuous function.

00:54:11.600 --> 00:54:14.170 align:middle line:84%
So we can ask about
the relationship

00:54:14.170 --> 00:54:16.810 align:middle line:84%
between the integral
of f and the limit

00:54:16.810 --> 00:54:17.920 align:middle line:90%
of the integrals of f n.

00:54:17.920 --> 00:54:21.330 align:middle line:90%


00:54:21.330 --> 00:54:26.250 align:middle line:84%
Then the limit as
n goes to infinity,

00:54:26.250 --> 00:54:32.040 align:middle line:84%
integral from a to b of
f n equals the integral

00:54:32.040 --> 00:54:34.120 align:middle line:90%
from a, b to f.

00:54:34.120 --> 00:54:37.080 align:middle line:84%
So the integral of
the uniform limit

00:54:37.080 --> 00:54:39.360 align:middle line:90%
is the limit of the integrals.

00:54:39.360 --> 00:54:49.720 align:middle line:90%


00:54:49.720 --> 00:54:51.580 align:middle line:84%
So this is just a
sequence of numbers,

00:54:51.580 --> 00:54:54.200 align:middle line:84%
and we want to show it
converges to this number here.

00:54:54.200 --> 00:54:56.620 align:middle line:84%
So let's do this the
old-fashioned way.

00:54:56.620 --> 00:55:00.250 align:middle line:90%


00:55:00.250 --> 00:55:01.630 align:middle line:90%
Let epsilon be positive.

00:55:01.630 --> 00:55:04.460 align:middle line:90%


00:55:04.460 --> 00:55:11.210 align:middle line:84%
Since f n converges
to f uniformly,

00:55:11.210 --> 00:55:21.750 align:middle line:84%
there exists a natural
number M such that

00:55:21.750 --> 00:55:25.610 align:middle line:84%
for all n bigger than or
equal to M, for all x in a,

00:55:25.610 --> 00:55:33.200 align:middle line:84%
b, f n of x minus f of
x is less than epsilon.

00:55:33.200 --> 00:55:37.488 align:middle line:90%


00:55:37.488 --> 00:55:39.030 align:middle line:84%
Now, basically what
we're going to do

00:55:39.030 --> 00:55:41.070 align:middle line:90%
is integrate this inequality.

00:55:41.070 --> 00:55:43.860 align:middle line:84%
And remember, unlike
differentiation, integration

00:55:43.860 --> 00:55:45.270 align:middle line:90%
respects inequalities.

00:55:45.270 --> 00:55:48.410 align:middle line:90%


00:55:48.410 --> 00:55:50.500 align:middle line:84%
And for all n bigger
than or equal to M,

00:55:50.500 --> 00:55:57.920 align:middle line:84%
meaning I'm choosing my
M as this guy for proving

00:55:57.920 --> 00:56:04.085 align:middle line:84%
this limit, if I look at
the integral from a, b of f

00:56:04.085 --> 00:56:07.910 align:middle line:84%
n minus the integral
of a, b to f,

00:56:07.910 --> 00:56:11.240 align:middle line:84%
this is, by linearity
of the integral,

00:56:11.240 --> 00:56:14.990 align:middle line:84%
the integral of f n
minus f, absolute value.

00:56:14.990 --> 00:56:18.530 align:middle line:84%
By the triangle inequality for
integrals, which we proved,

00:56:18.530 --> 00:56:21.470 align:middle line:84%
this is less than or equal
to the integral from a,

00:56:21.470 --> 00:56:25.490 align:middle line:90%
b of f n minus f.

00:56:25.490 --> 00:56:29.600 align:middle line:84%
And what do we know for all
n bigger than or equal to M?

00:56:29.600 --> 00:56:35.420 align:middle line:84%
This function here, f n of x
minus f of x in absolute value,

00:56:35.420 --> 00:56:38.240 align:middle line:90%
is bounded by epsilon.

00:56:38.240 --> 00:56:40.040 align:middle line:84%
And therefore, the
integral of this side

00:56:40.040 --> 00:56:42.830 align:middle line:84%
is going to be less than the
integral of the right side.

00:56:42.830 --> 00:56:45.150 align:middle line:90%
So I did this wrong.

00:56:45.150 --> 00:56:48.330 align:middle line:90%
Let's put a b minus a over this.

00:56:48.330 --> 00:56:55.730 align:middle line:84%
So this is less than integral
a, b epsilon over b minus a.

00:56:55.730 --> 00:56:57.750 align:middle line:84%
And so then I just
pick up this number

00:56:57.750 --> 00:57:06.370 align:middle line:84%
times the length of the
interval, which equals epsilon.

00:57:06.370 --> 00:57:08.520 align:middle line:84%
So for all n bigger
than or equal to M,

00:57:08.520 --> 00:57:10.500 align:middle line:84%
the absolute value
of this integral

00:57:10.500 --> 00:57:14.445 align:middle line:84%
of f sub n minus the integral
of f is less than epsilon.

00:57:14.445 --> 00:57:17.510 align:middle line:90%


00:57:17.510 --> 00:57:20.530 align:middle line:84%
So the integral of
the uniform limit

00:57:20.530 --> 00:57:24.020 align:middle line:90%
is the limit of the integrals.

00:57:24.020 --> 00:57:31.300 align:middle line:84%
So now we'll use this to do
the last interchange of limits

00:57:31.300 --> 00:57:35.655 align:middle line:84%
theorem that I had
in mind, so number 2.

00:57:35.655 --> 00:57:38.520 align:middle line:90%


00:57:38.520 --> 00:57:41.670 align:middle line:84%
And again, this is kind of the
simplest statement, and maybe

00:57:41.670 --> 00:57:44.040 align:middle line:84%
easiest to prove,
that one can make.

00:57:44.040 --> 00:57:46.380 align:middle line:84%
One can make stronger
statements and prove them,

00:57:46.380 --> 00:57:49.150 align:middle line:84%
but in most cases,
this suffices.

00:57:49.150 --> 00:58:09.560 align:middle line:84%
So suppose f in a, b to
R. So this is continuously

00:58:09.560 --> 00:58:16.290 align:middle line:84%
differentiable for
all n, f and g--

00:58:16.290 --> 00:58:20.880 align:middle line:84%
these are two functions
from a, b to R--

00:58:20.880 --> 00:58:33.310 align:middle line:84%
and f n converges to f uniformly
on a, b, and the derivatives

00:58:33.310 --> 00:58:35.815 align:middle line:84%
converge uniformly
to this function g.

00:58:35.815 --> 00:58:45.530 align:middle line:90%


00:58:45.530 --> 00:58:49.390 align:middle line:84%
And in fact, I don't
even need this.

00:58:49.390 --> 00:58:50.710 align:middle line:90%
We just say pointwise.

00:58:50.710 --> 00:58:53.760 align:middle line:90%


00:58:53.760 --> 00:58:58.770 align:middle line:84%
So I only need uniform
convergence of the derivatives

00:58:58.770 --> 00:59:02.820 align:middle line:84%
if I'm assuming everything is
continuously differentiable,

00:59:02.820 --> 00:59:04.950 align:middle line:84%
if I'm assuming the
sequences are continuously

00:59:04.950 --> 00:59:06.660 align:middle line:90%
differentiable.

00:59:06.660 --> 00:59:16.320 align:middle line:84%
Then f is
differentiable, in fact,

00:59:16.320 --> 00:59:19.230 align:middle line:84%
continuously
differentiable, meaning

00:59:19.230 --> 00:59:21.030 align:middle line:90%
the derivative is continuous.

00:59:21.030 --> 00:59:26.140 align:middle line:90%


00:59:26.140 --> 00:59:33.670 align:middle line:84%
And the derivative
of f is equal to g,

00:59:33.670 --> 00:59:40.630 align:middle line:84%
meaning that the uniform
limit of the derivatives

00:59:40.630 --> 00:59:44.590 align:middle line:84%
converges to the
derivative of f.

00:59:44.590 --> 00:59:51.120 align:middle line:84%
So again, what this says
is the uniform limit of--

00:59:51.120 --> 00:59:52.628 align:middle line:84%
or at least in
essence and spirit,

00:59:52.628 --> 00:59:55.170 align:middle line:84%
it's not exactly what it says--
but it says the uniform limit

00:59:55.170 --> 01:00:02.060 align:middle line:84%
of continuously differentiable
functions is differentiable,

01:00:02.060 --> 01:00:07.640 align:middle line:84%
and that the derivative of the
uniform limit is the limit of--

01:00:07.640 --> 01:00:10.620 align:middle line:90%


01:00:10.620 --> 01:00:12.270 align:middle line:84%
the derivative of
the uniform limit

01:00:12.270 --> 01:00:14.400 align:middle line:84%
is the uniform limit
of the derivatives.

01:00:14.400 --> 01:00:19.850 align:middle line:90%


01:00:19.850 --> 01:00:22.185 align:middle line:84%
So to prove this, we use
the fundamental theorem

01:00:22.185 --> 01:00:22.685 align:middle line:90%
of calculus.

01:00:22.685 --> 01:00:25.690 align:middle line:90%


01:00:25.690 --> 01:00:32.970 align:middle line:90%
So let x be a point in a, b.

01:00:32.970 --> 01:00:42.390 align:middle line:84%
Then by the fundamental
theorem of calculus,

01:00:42.390 --> 01:00:45.615 align:middle line:84%
if I take f n of
x minus f n of a,

01:00:45.615 --> 01:00:51.265 align:middle line:84%
this is equal to the integral
from a to x of f n prime.

01:00:51.265 --> 01:00:53.640 align:middle line:84%
The integral of the derivative
gives me back the function

01:00:53.640 --> 01:00:55.140 align:middle line:90%
evaluated at the endpoints.

01:00:55.140 --> 01:00:59.780 align:middle line:90%


01:00:59.780 --> 01:01:02.600 align:middle line:84%
And therefore, since I
pointwise convergence,

01:01:02.600 --> 01:01:07.280 align:middle line:84%
these two numbers converge
pointwise to f of x and f

01:01:07.280 --> 01:01:12.450 align:middle line:90%
of a respectively.

01:01:12.450 --> 01:01:15.920 align:middle line:84%
So f of x minus f of
a equals the limit

01:01:15.920 --> 01:01:20.720 align:middle line:84%
as n goes to infinity of
f n of x minus f n of a.

01:01:20.720 --> 01:01:23.648 align:middle line:90%


01:01:23.648 --> 01:01:31.590 align:middle line:84%
And this is equal to, just by
the previous expression, limit

01:01:31.590 --> 01:01:33.870 align:middle line:84%
as n goes to infinity
of the integral from a

01:01:33.870 --> 01:01:38.030 align:middle line:90%
to x of f n prime.

01:01:38.030 --> 01:01:41.340 align:middle line:90%


01:01:41.340 --> 01:01:44.610 align:middle line:84%
Now, these f n primes are
converging to g, this function

01:01:44.610 --> 01:01:46.260 align:middle line:90%
g, uniformly.

01:01:46.260 --> 01:01:48.315 align:middle line:84%
And therefore, the
integrals converge.

01:01:48.315 --> 01:01:49.440 align:middle line:90%
that's what we just proved.

01:01:49.440 --> 01:01:52.170 align:middle line:90%


01:01:52.170 --> 01:01:53.990 align:middle line:84%
So this equals the
integral of the limit.

01:01:53.990 --> 01:01:56.710 align:middle line:90%


01:01:56.710 --> 01:02:01.290 align:middle line:84%
And therefore-- so we started
off with f of x minus f of a,

01:02:01.290 --> 01:02:04.560 align:middle line:84%
and we showed it's equal to
the integral from a to x of g.

01:02:04.560 --> 01:02:14.610 align:middle line:84%
So f of x equals f of a plus
the integral from a to x of g.

01:02:14.610 --> 01:02:17.250 align:middle line:84%
But no, again by the
fundamental theorem of calculus,

01:02:17.250 --> 01:02:26.490 align:middle line:84%
this implies that f
is differentiable.

01:02:26.490 --> 01:02:31.580 align:middle line:84%
And the derivative of f
of x, the derivative of f,

01:02:31.580 --> 01:02:34.070 align:middle line:84%
is equal to the
derivative-- so remember,

01:02:34.070 --> 01:02:37.820 align:middle line:84%
f of a, that's just a
constant-- equals the derivative

01:02:37.820 --> 01:02:39.710 align:middle line:90%
of this function, which is g.

01:02:39.710 --> 01:02:51.580 align:middle line:90%


01:02:51.580 --> 01:02:55.030 align:middle line:84%
I think we have just
enough time to prove

01:02:55.030 --> 01:03:01.770 align:middle line:90%
one more pretty good theorem.

01:03:01.770 --> 01:03:07.050 align:middle line:90%


01:03:07.050 --> 01:03:08.550 align:middle line:90%
Pretty good-- it's very good.

01:03:08.550 --> 01:03:14.000 align:middle line:90%


01:03:14.000 --> 01:03:21.500 align:middle line:84%
And then we'll use it
in our next lecture

01:03:21.500 --> 01:03:25.130 align:middle line:84%
to discuss, or at
least conclude,

01:03:25.130 --> 01:03:27.545 align:middle line:84%
some answers that we originally
asked about power series.

01:03:27.545 --> 01:03:32.090 align:middle line:90%


01:03:32.090 --> 01:03:37.090 align:middle line:84%
So this theorem is due to
the godfather, Weierstrass.

01:03:37.090 --> 01:03:40.372 align:middle line:84%
I don't know, did I refer to
him as godfather or Riemann

01:03:40.372 --> 01:03:41.080 align:middle line:90%
as the godfather?

01:03:41.080 --> 01:03:42.970 align:middle line:84%
Anyway, I think
it was Weierstrass

01:03:42.970 --> 01:03:45.670 align:middle line:84%
that I refer to
as the godfather.

01:03:45.670 --> 01:03:47.110 align:middle line:84%
He proved the
following theorem--

01:03:47.110 --> 01:03:50.320 align:middle line:90%


01:03:50.320 --> 01:03:53.950 align:middle line:84%
when can you guarantee
uniform convergence

01:03:53.950 --> 01:03:55.480 align:middle line:84%
for at least a
series of functions,

01:03:55.480 --> 01:04:00.340 align:middle line:84%
which are limits of partial
sums, so limits of functions?

01:04:00.340 --> 01:04:04.540 align:middle line:84%
And he proved this basically
so he could come up

01:04:04.540 --> 01:04:09.190 align:middle line:84%
with a whole host of examples
of continuous functions

01:04:09.190 --> 01:04:12.825 align:middle line:84%
which are nowhere
differentiable.

01:04:12.825 --> 01:04:14.450 align:middle line:84%
We kind of gave a
proof of this theorem

01:04:14.450 --> 01:04:17.763 align:middle line:84%
when we looked at
that example, when

01:04:17.763 --> 01:04:19.430 align:middle line:84%
we were talking about
differentiability,

01:04:19.430 --> 01:04:24.320 align:middle line:84%
but we didn't state
it as a theorem there.

01:04:24.320 --> 01:04:34.340 align:middle line:84%
So let's take a sequence of
functions f j from S to R,

01:04:34.340 --> 01:04:50.170 align:middle line:84%
and suppose there exists a
sequence M j such that two

01:04:50.170 --> 01:04:51.040 align:middle line:90%
things hold.

01:04:51.040 --> 01:04:53.080 align:middle line:84%
So these are a sequence
of positive numbers.

01:04:53.080 --> 01:05:02.520 align:middle line:90%


01:05:02.520 --> 01:05:04.350 align:middle line:84%
I don't know why I
just erased that, but--

01:05:04.350 --> 01:05:08.070 align:middle line:84%
so we have a sequence
of functions from S to R

01:05:08.070 --> 01:05:12.660 align:middle line:84%
and a sequence of positive
numbers so that these numbers

01:05:12.660 --> 01:05:13.845 align:middle line:90%
dominate the f j's.

01:05:13.845 --> 01:05:24.640 align:middle line:90%


01:05:24.640 --> 01:05:30.540 align:middle line:84%
And 2, they're
summable, so sum from j

01:05:30.540 --> 01:05:41.230 align:middle line:84%
equals 1 to infinity,
which is convergent.

01:05:41.230 --> 01:05:52.160 align:middle line:90%


01:05:52.160 --> 01:05:56.370 align:middle line:84%
Then the conclusion-- and
since I've been using numbers

01:05:56.370 --> 01:05:58.590 align:middle line:84%
for conclusions and
letters for hypotheses,

01:05:58.590 --> 01:05:59.730 align:middle line:90%
let's go back to that--

01:05:59.730 --> 01:06:02.380 align:middle line:90%
then we have two conclusions.

01:06:02.380 --> 01:06:04.890 align:middle line:90%
The first one is pretty obvious.

01:06:04.890 --> 01:06:17.560 align:middle line:84%
For all x in S, this
series where I just

01:06:17.560 --> 01:06:28.370 align:middle line:84%
take x and stick it into f sub
j, this converges absolutely.

01:06:28.370 --> 01:06:34.950 align:middle line:84%
And the second is if I
define, now, the function

01:06:34.950 --> 01:06:43.510 align:middle line:84%
to be the sum of these series,
then the partial sums converge

01:06:43.510 --> 01:06:44.590 align:middle line:90%
to f uniformly--

01:06:44.590 --> 01:06:54.380 align:middle line:90%


01:06:54.380 --> 01:07:10.970 align:middle line:84%
converges to f uniformly
as n goes to infinity on S.

01:07:10.970 --> 01:07:14.570 align:middle line:84%
So if I have a
sequence of functions,

01:07:14.570 --> 01:07:17.660 align:middle line:84%
each one bounded by some number
of M sub j, positive number--

01:07:17.660 --> 01:07:21.080 align:middle line:84%
or not negative
number, at least--

01:07:21.080 --> 01:07:26.690 align:middle line:84%
and the series involving the
M sub j's is convergent, then

01:07:26.690 --> 01:07:30.200 align:middle line:84%
the series of the f sub
j's converges uniformly.

01:07:30.200 --> 01:07:31.560 align:middle line:90%
That's the conclusion.

01:07:31.560 --> 01:07:34.520 align:middle line:90%


01:07:34.520 --> 01:07:36.890 align:middle line:84%
So in our example of
that continuous, nowhere

01:07:36.890 --> 01:07:40.430 align:middle line:84%
differentiable functions,
each of these f sub j's

01:07:40.430 --> 01:07:51.140 align:middle line:84%
were cosine of 160j
x over 4 to the j.

01:07:51.140 --> 01:07:54.864 align:middle line:90%


01:07:54.864 --> 01:08:00.190 align:middle line:84%
So before we prove
this theorem, we

01:08:00.190 --> 01:08:02.020 align:middle line:84%
can combine all
of what we've done

01:08:02.020 --> 01:08:04.490 align:middle line:90%
so far to state the following--

01:08:04.490 --> 01:08:08.900 align:middle line:90%


01:08:08.900 --> 01:08:14.972 align:middle line:84%
the function f of x equals sum
from j equals 1 to infinity,

01:08:14.972 --> 01:08:16.430 align:middle line:84%
and I could make
it something else,

01:08:16.430 --> 01:08:29.240 align:middle line:84%
but let's say sine of 40k over
2 to the k x is continuous on,

01:08:29.240 --> 01:08:31.460 align:middle line:90%
let's say, 0, 1 for now.

01:08:31.460 --> 01:08:34.090 align:middle line:90%


01:08:34.090 --> 01:08:42.279 align:middle line:90%
I could say on R.

01:08:42.279 --> 01:08:43.779 align:middle line:90%
Why is that?

01:08:43.779 --> 01:08:46.524 align:middle line:90%
Each of these f sub--

01:08:46.524 --> 01:08:48.399 align:middle line:84%
I'm really butchering
this trying to go fast.

01:08:48.399 --> 01:08:54.689 align:middle line:90%


01:08:54.689 --> 01:08:58.010 align:middle line:90%
This is 2 to the j, not 2.

01:08:58.010 --> 01:09:02.029 align:middle line:84%
Each of these functions is
bounded by 1 over 2 to the j,

01:09:02.029 --> 01:09:05.600 align:middle line:84%
and 1 over 2 to
the j is summable.

01:09:05.600 --> 01:09:10.279 align:middle line:84%
So then by this theorem,
this convergence,

01:09:10.279 --> 01:09:13.520 align:middle line:84%
so this function here,
is the uniform limit

01:09:13.520 --> 01:09:16.430 align:middle line:90%
of the partial sums.

01:09:16.430 --> 01:09:21.140 align:middle line:84%
The partial sums are just a
finite sum involving sine,

01:09:21.140 --> 01:09:23.220 align:middle line:90%
so they're continuous functions.

01:09:23.220 --> 01:09:26.450 align:middle line:84%
So f is the uniform limit
of continuous functions,

01:09:26.450 --> 01:09:30.000 align:middle line:90%
and is, therefore, continuous.

01:09:30.000 --> 01:09:32.220 align:middle line:84%
So we could have
used this theorem

01:09:32.220 --> 01:09:35.729 align:middle line:84%
to prove that function we looked
at back in differentiability

01:09:35.729 --> 01:09:38.279 align:middle line:84%
was continuous,
but we didn't have

01:09:38.279 --> 01:09:40.770 align:middle line:84%
uniform convergence
and all that back then.

01:09:40.770 --> 01:09:42.060 align:middle line:90%
So we just proved it by hand.

01:09:42.060 --> 01:09:49.120 align:middle line:84%
But using this, this
theorem gives you

01:09:49.120 --> 01:09:54.730 align:middle line:84%
a big class of sequences
of functions which converge

01:09:54.730 --> 01:09:56.065 align:middle line:90%
uniformly to some function.

01:09:56.065 --> 01:10:01.630 align:middle line:90%


01:10:01.630 --> 01:10:05.440 align:middle line:90%
So let's prove this quickly.

01:10:05.440 --> 01:10:24.220 align:middle line:84%
So one follows from
the assumption a, b,

01:10:24.220 --> 01:10:25.300 align:middle line:90%
and the comparison test.

01:10:25.300 --> 01:10:28.650 align:middle line:90%


01:10:28.650 --> 01:10:34.430 align:middle line:84%
If I take an x in S f sub j
of x is bounded by M sub j,

01:10:34.430 --> 01:10:39.570 align:middle line:84%
and M sub j is summable,
this series converges.

01:10:39.570 --> 01:10:43.730 align:middle line:84%
So by the comparison
test, the sum,

01:10:43.730 --> 01:10:48.160 align:middle line:84%
with absolute values here
for each fixed x, converges.

01:10:48.160 --> 01:10:49.645 align:middle line:90%
And that's absolute convergence.

01:10:49.645 --> 01:10:55.400 align:middle line:90%


01:10:55.400 --> 01:10:58.430 align:middle line:84%
Now, let's show that the
partial sums converge

01:10:58.430 --> 01:11:00.170 align:middle line:90%
to the limit uniformly.

01:11:00.170 --> 01:11:03.910 align:middle line:90%


01:11:03.910 --> 01:11:07.570 align:middle line:90%
So let epsilon be positive.

01:11:07.570 --> 01:11:11.380 align:middle line:90%


01:11:11.380 --> 01:11:23.330 align:middle line:84%
Since this sum converges,
there exists an M,

01:11:23.330 --> 01:11:25.610 align:middle line:84%
a natural number
so this-- remember,

01:11:25.610 --> 01:11:27.395 align:middle line:84%
we have this Cauchy
criterion for--

01:11:27.395 --> 01:11:31.278 align:middle line:90%


01:11:31.278 --> 01:11:32.820 align:middle line:84%
well, I guess we
don't have to have--

01:11:32.820 --> 01:11:43.340 align:middle line:84%
so that sum from n equals
M plus 1 to infinity of M

01:11:43.340 --> 01:11:48.230 align:middle line:90%
sub j, so j, which is equal to--

01:11:48.230 --> 01:12:00.270 align:middle line:90%


01:12:00.270 --> 01:12:03.960 align:middle line:90%
I chose a poor letter.

01:12:03.960 --> 01:12:15.370 align:middle line:84%
So this M here should not--
let's change this to an N.

01:12:15.370 --> 01:12:17.030 align:middle line:90%
So this is less than epsilon.

01:12:17.030 --> 01:12:18.790 align:middle line:84%
So the point is that
the tail is small.

01:12:18.790 --> 01:12:22.180 align:middle line:84%
The sum from j equals n plus
1 to infinity of M sub j

01:12:22.180 --> 01:12:23.095 align:middle line:90%
is less than epsilon.

01:12:23.095 --> 01:12:31.400 align:middle line:90%


01:12:31.400 --> 01:12:35.020 align:middle line:84%
And for all n bigger than
or equal to this capital N,

01:12:35.020 --> 01:12:39.520 align:middle line:84%
for all x in S, if I
look at the limit, which

01:12:39.520 --> 01:12:44.500 align:middle line:84%
is f of x, this is sum of
the series minus sum from j

01:12:44.500 --> 01:12:51.080 align:middle line:84%
equals 1 to n,
this is equal to--

01:12:51.080 --> 01:12:53.010 align:middle line:84%
now, f of x is equal
to the whole sum,

01:12:53.010 --> 01:12:54.470 align:middle line:84%
so minus this
first part, this is

01:12:54.470 --> 01:12:57.290 align:middle line:84%
equal to sum from
j equals n plus 1

01:12:57.290 --> 01:13:02.370 align:middle line:90%
to infinity of f of j of x.

01:13:02.370 --> 01:13:04.680 align:middle line:84%
And by the triangle
inequality, which

01:13:04.680 --> 01:13:06.300 align:middle line:84%
does hold for a
convergent series,

01:13:06.300 --> 01:13:10.320 align:middle line:84%
this is less than or
equal to sum from j

01:13:10.320 --> 01:13:29.890 align:middle line:84%
equals n plus 1 to
infinity of f sub j of x.

01:13:29.890 --> 01:13:37.430 align:middle line:84%
And by assumption
a, this is less than

01:13:37.430 --> 01:13:43.280 align:middle line:84%
or equal to sum from j equals n
plus 1 to infinity of M sub j.

01:13:43.280 --> 01:13:46.100 align:middle line:84%
And since n is bigger than
or equal to capital N,

01:13:46.100 --> 01:13:49.970 align:middle line:84%
I have this is
less than or equal

01:13:49.970 --> 01:13:55.460 align:middle line:84%
to sum from j equals capital N
plus 1 to infinity of M sub j.

01:13:55.460 --> 01:13:59.120 align:middle line:84%
And this thing,
we chose capital N

01:13:59.120 --> 01:14:01.748 align:middle line:84%
so that that's
less than epsilon.

01:14:01.748 --> 01:14:02.540 align:middle line:90%
And that's the end.

01:14:02.540 --> 01:14:07.440 align:middle line:84%
So again, this n was chosen
depending only on the series.

01:14:07.440 --> 01:14:11.240 align:middle line:84%
It didn't depend
on any x at any--

01:14:11.240 --> 01:14:14.928 align:middle line:84%
it didn't depend on
the point x in S.

01:14:14.928 --> 01:14:16.720 align:middle line:84%
So I had to go through
that kind of quickly

01:14:16.720 --> 01:14:18.610 align:middle line:84%
because I'm up against
the time crunch.

01:14:18.610 --> 01:14:23.470 align:middle line:84%
But the point is,
for this theorem,

01:14:23.470 --> 01:14:28.240 align:middle line:84%
is that if I have a sequence
of functions that are bounded

01:14:28.240 --> 01:14:32.365 align:middle line:90%
by these numbers M sub j--

01:14:32.365 --> 01:14:39.220 align:middle line:84%
I was going so fast I didn't
even label it correctly--

01:14:39.220 --> 01:14:42.790 align:middle line:84%
this is called the
Weierstrass M test,

01:14:42.790 --> 01:14:46.520 align:middle line:90%
M because you see M here--

01:14:46.520 --> 01:14:48.470 align:middle line:84%
if I have a sequence
of functions bounded

01:14:48.470 --> 01:14:52.010 align:middle line:84%
by some numbers M sub j, And
those M sub j's are summable,

01:14:52.010 --> 01:14:57.530 align:middle line:84%
then what it says is that
the series of the functions

01:14:57.530 --> 01:14:58.790 align:middle line:90%
converges uniformly.

01:14:58.790 --> 01:15:01.680 align:middle line:90%


01:15:01.680 --> 01:15:04.010 align:middle line:90%
So we'll stop there.

01:15:04.010 --> 01:15:10.000 align:middle line:90%